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047

Case 047Credit analysis and lendingHard

A sponsor asks you to lend 5.5x adjusted EBITDA for its buyout of Nandanvan Healthcare Services. Decide how much you would lend, at what price and on what covenants, and defend the gap to the ask.

Golub CapitalChicago · 2015

1The situation

Nandanvan Healthcare Services runs diagnostic labs and pathology outsourcing for hospitals. Revenue is Rs 900 crore. Reported EBITDA is Rs 130 crore; the sponsor presents adjusted EBITDA of Rs 150 crore, adding Rs 12 crore of run-rate savings from a procurement programme not yet implemented and Rs 8 crore of one-off costs from last year's lab relocation. The largest hospital group is 30% of revenue, 80% of revenue is under two- to three-year contracts, and maintenance capex is 3% of revenue, Rs 27 crore.

The sponsor asks for Rs 825 crore of unitranche debt, 5.5x adjusted EBITDA. Illustrative pricing for a credit of this kind is 11 to 11.5%; confirm against current market terms.

2Your task

Propose the leverage you would offer, the pricing, and the covenants, and show why the sponsor's number does not work for a lender.

Quick check

Which of the Rs 20 crore of adjustments should a lender count when sizing the loan?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

Offer about Rs 585 crore, 4.5x reported EBITDA, at around 11% with a leverage covenant that counts only delivered savings. The ask of Rs 825 crore is 6.3x the EBITDA that exists today. Size on Rs 130 crore: it gives interest cover after capex of 1.6x and free cash of about Rs 29 crore to delever. At Rs 825 crore, cover is 1.1x and one repricing by the 30% customer leaves the company unable to pay interest from cash. The adjustments are not fictional; they are risk, and risk is priced and covenanted, not lent against.

Step 1Why does a lender size on reported EBITDA?

A landlord deciding how much rent a tenant can afford looks at the salary on the payslip, not the raise the tenant expects next year. A lender is paid a fixed coupon from the cash the business actually produces, so it sizes the loan on the EBITDA it can see and treats the rest as upside that belongs to the equity. Of the Rs 20 crore of adjustments, the Rs 8 crore of relocation costs can be credited if the invoices show they are done; the Rs 12 crore of procurement savings are a plan. At 5.5x those adjustments alone are worth Rs 110 crore of the ask; the other Rs 130 crore is the extra turn of leverage.

The sponsor's Rs 825 crore and the lender's Rs 585 crore: where the Rs 240 crore gap comes fromSponsor asks: 5.5x adjusted EBITDA5.5 x 130 reported = 7155.5 x 8 one-offs = 445.5 x 12 savings = 66825Lender offers: 4.5x reported EBITDA4.5 x 130 reported = 585585gap 240130 extra turn + 110 adjustments0200400600800Rs crore of debtaskofferLender's rule: size on EBITDA you can see. Savings count when delivered; one-offs count when evidenced.Even crediting the Rs 8 crore of one-offs, 4.5x gives Rs 621 crore, still Rs 204 crore short of the ask.
Of the Rs 240 crore between the sponsor's Rs 825 crore and the lender's Rs 585 crore, Rs 110 crore comes from lending 5.5x against unproven adjustments and Rs 130 crore from the extra turn on reported EBITDA.
Step 2Can the business service each debt level?

Work the cash. EBITDA Rs 130 crore less capex Rs 27 crore leaves Rs 103 crore before interest and tax. At Rs 585 crore and 11%, interest is Rs 64 crore, cover after capex is 1.60x, and after tax about Rs 29 crore is left each year to repay debt, about 5% of the loan, slow but real. At Rs 825 crore and 11.5%, interest is Rs 95 crore, cover is 1.09x and free cash is about Rs 6 crore: the loan only ever gets repaid by refinancing or by the savings arriving on time.

Rs croreOffer, 4.5x reportedAsk, 5.5x adjusted
Debt585825
Debt / reported EBITDA4.5x6.3x
Interest(64.3)(94.9)
(EBITDA - capex) / interest1.60x1.09x
Free cash after interest and tax296
Same, if EBITDA falls to 11115-11
Depreciation assumed equal to capex and tax at 25% on profit after interest. The offer leaves Rs 29 crore a year to delever; the ask leaves Rs 6 crore in the base case and a shortfall once the largest customer reprices.
Step 3What does the concentration risk do, and how do you underwrite it?

The 30% customer is the single thing that can break this credit. Do not model losing it outright, which no lender would survive at any leverage; model what actually happens at renewal: a 20% price cut on 30% of revenue, Rs 54 crore, at a 35% contribution margin takes EBITDA to about Rs 111 crore. At Rs 585 crore the company still covers interest 1.31x and keeps Rs 15 crore of free cash; at Rs 825 crore cover is 0.89x and free cash is Rs -11 crore, which means borrowing to pay interest. That is the test the leverage has to pass, and only one level passes it.

The same business, two debt levels, one customer repricing: which one still pays its interest?Rs 585 crore at 11%Base 130Stress 111Cover after capex1.60x1.31xDebt / EBITDA4.5x5.3xFree cash flow2915survives the stress, slowly deleversRs 825 crore at 11.5%Base 130Stress 111Cover after capex1.09x0.89xDebt / EBITDA6.3x7.4xFree cash flow6-11cannot pay interest from cash in the stress
With the top customer repriced and EBITDA at Rs 111 crore, Rs 585 crore of debt still covers its interest 1.31x with cash to spare, while Rs 825 crore covers it only 0.89x and free cash turns negative.

The terms follow from the analysis. Pricing around 11%, with a step-up if leverage stays above 4.0x after two years. A net leverage covenant starting at 5.25x on reported EBITDA with a covenant EBITDAThe definition of EBITDA written into the loan agreement, which fixes what add-backs count and how large they may be. that caps add-backs at, say, 10% of EBITDA and counts savings only once delivered; stepping down to 4.0x over three years. Interest cover of at least 1.75x. A 50% excess cash flow sweep. And reporting covenants that give the lender the top-ten customer list and contract expiry dates every quarter, because the renewal date of the 30% customer is the date this loan is really tested on.

The judgement: Rs 585 crore now, with a Rs 60 crore delayed-draw or incremental facility that becomes available if the procurement savings show up in audited numbers. That gives the sponsor a path to its number without asking the lender to fund a plan. If the sponsor needs Rs 825 crore on day one, the right answer is a smaller cheque from this lender and a junior tranche from someone paid to take equity-like risk.

Where candidates lose it

The common loss is accepting adjusted EBITDA as the base and arguing only about the multiple. Most of the gap is in the EBITDA, and a lender who concedes the base has conceded the loan.

The second is stressing the wrong thing: modelling the loss of the whole top customer, which no leverage survives, instead of the realistic repricing that distinguishes a safe level from a dangerous one.

What the interviewer asks next

  • The sponsor offers Rs 300 crore of equity underneath, 35% of the price. Does more equity change the debt you would lend?
  • How would you write the covenant definition of EBITDA so that the Rs 12 crore of savings cannot be counted before they appear?
  • The 30% customer's contract expires in 14 months. What would you want in the documents about that date?

Asked at Golub Capital, Leveraged Finance, Chicago, 2015 (Wall Street Oasis): What do you think is an appropriate leverage indication for a business with XYZ characteristics?

← Case 046Sindhuja Electronics owes US $20 million in six months. Compare leaving it open, a forward and a call option if the rupee ends at 80, 84 or 88, and say what each choice is really a decision about.Case 048 →Natural rubber rises 20% and Pathik Tyres can pass only part of it on, with a lag. Show the EBITDA margin quarter by quarter in the first year under base, bull and bear pass-through cases.

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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