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064

Case 064Credit and leveraged financeHard

A CLO's mezzanine overcollateralisation test fails after defaults. Does it fail, by how much, and how much interest is diverted away from the equity to cure it?

NomuraNew York · 2026

1The situation

Sarang CLO I holds a pool of Rs 4,000 crore of leveraged loans yielding 10%. It has funded the pool with Rs 2,800 crore of senior notes at 8%, Rs 600 crore of mezzanine notes at 11% and Rs 600 crore of equity, which receives whatever interest is left after the notes are paid.

The indenture's priority of payments sets the order: senior interest, mezzanine interest, then a mezzanine overcollateralisation test. The test requires the loan pool to be at least 112% of the senior and mezzanine notes together. If it fails, interest that would have gone to equity is used to repay senior notes until the test passes. This period Rs 250 crore of loans default and are written off at zero. Ignore fees and the timing of interest within the period.

2Your task

Does the mezzanine test pass after the defaults? If not, how much interest is diverted, and what does the equity receive?

Quick check

How much of the Rs 250 crore of defaults could the CLO have absorbed before the test failed?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

The test fails, at 110.3% against 112%, and Rs 51.8 crore of interest is diverted to repay senior notes, leaving the equity Rs 33.2 crore instead of Rs 110 crore. After defaults the pool is Rs 3,750 crore and earns Rs 375 crore; the notes take Rs 290 crore. To restore 112%, the notes must fall to Rs 3,348.2 crore, which takes Rs 51.8 crore of the Rs 85 crore left.

Step 1What is the overcollateralisation test protecting?

Think of a group of friends who lend money to a shared venture, with one friend agreeing to be paid last in exchange for keeping any profit left over. If the venture starts losing money, the others want a rule: until there is enough cushion again, the last friend's share goes to paying them down. An overcollateralisation testA check that the par value of the loan pool is at least a set multiple of the notes above a given level. If it falls short, cash is redirected to repay the senior notes. is that rule: when losses eat into the cushion, the waterfall turns cash away from the bottom of the stack and uses it to shrink the top. It protects the notes; the equity pays for it.

Before defaults the pool of Rs 4,000 crore against Rs 3,400 crore of notes gives 117.6%, a pass. After Rs 250 crore is written off, the pool is Rs 3,750 crore and the ratio is 110.3%. The test fails, because the cushion above 112% was only Rs 192 crore, under 5% of the pool. That is the number interviewers like: a CLO's equity can be cut off by losses far smaller than the equity itself.

Mezzanine coverage against its 112% trigger (bars start at 100%)Before defaults: 4,000 / 3,400117.6% passAfter defaults: 3,750 / 3,400110.3% failAfter cure: 3,750 / 3,348.2112.0% just passes112% trigger
The mezzanine coverage ratio falls from 117.6% to 110.3% after Rs 250 crore of defaults, below the 112% trigger, and repaying Rs 51.8 crore of senior notes brings it back to exactly 112%.
Step 2How much interest has to be diverted to cure the test?

Cure the ratio by shrinking the denominator. The pool stays at Rs 3,750 crore, so the notes must fall to 3,750 divided by 1.12, Rs 3,348.2 crore. They are Rs 3,400 crore, so Rs 51.8 crore of senior notes must be repaid. The cash comes from interest that would otherwise have gone to the equity. The pool earns Rs 375 crore on Rs 3,750 crore; senior interest takes Rs 224 crore and mezzanine interest Rs 66 crore, leaving Rs 85 crore, of which Rs 51.8 crore is diverted.

The relationship
X=3,400−3,7501.12=3,400−3,348.2=51.8X = 3{,}400 - \frac{3{,}750}{1.12} = 3{,}400 - 3{,}348.2 = 51.8
3,400senior plus mezzanine notes before the cure
3,750loan pool after Rs 250 crore of defaults
1.12the mezzanine overcollateralisation trigger
Xsenior notes repaid from diverted interest
What it says in wordsRepay enough senior notes that the pool is again 112% of the notes outstanding.
Where the interest goes once the mezzanine test fails, Rs crore375Interest collected3,750 x 10%-224Senior interest2,800 x 8%-66Mezzanine interest600 x 11%-51.8Diverted to seniorcures the test33.2Left for equitywas 110
Of Rs 375 crore of interest collected, Rs 224 crore pays senior interest and Rs 66 crore mezzanine interest; the failed test diverts Rs 51.8 crore to repay senior notes, and the equity is left with Rs 33.2 crore, down from Rs 110 crore.
Step 3What does this do to each layer of the stack?

The equity is hit twice. It loses Rs 25 crore of interest on the defaulted loans and then Rs 51.8 crore to the cure, so its cash falls from Rs 110 crore, a 18.3% yield on Rs 600 crore, to Rs 33.2 crore, 5.5%. The senior notes gain: they are repaid early at par and their own cover rises. The mezzanine notes are paid in full this period and their coverage is restored, which is the test doing its job.

Rs croreBefore defaultsAfter defaults, after cure
Loan pool4,0003,750
Interest collected400375
Senior plus mezzanine interest290290
Diverted to repay senior notes051.8
Cash to equity11033.2
Mezzanine coverage117.6%112.0%
Rs 250 crore of defaults, 6.25% of the pool, cut the equity's cash for the period by 70%, from Rs 110 crore to Rs 33.2 crore.

Close with what you would read next, which is where the question about the indenture comes from. The priority of payments section sets the order, the tests and their triggers; the definitions section decides how defaulted and low-rated loans count in the pool, often at a haircut rather than at par. That second point matters: in practice the test can fail before any loan defaults, if too many are downgraded. The senior test, here 133.9% on Rs 2,800 crore, is the next one to watch.

Where candidates lose it

The common error is curing the test by reducing the pool or by adding the diverted cash to the pool. The cure works on the notes: repay senior notes until the pool is 112% of what is left, Rs 51.8 crore here.

The second is forgetting the lost interest. Defaulted loans stop paying, so the equity loses Rs 25 crore of income before the diversion even starts.

What the interviewer asks next

  • Next period another Rs 100 crore defaults. How much is diverted then, and is there enough interest to cure it?
  • Why does the equity in a CLO often prefer to buy cheap loans below par during a downturn?
  • How does a haircut on loans rated CCC change the test even when nothing has defaulted?

Asked at Nomura, Structured Products, New York, 2026 (Wall Street Oasis): What section of the indenture deals with payment waterfalls?

← Case 063Hemvik Pharma can borrow Rs 1,000 crore at 9% or issue a 2% convertible at a 30% premium. Compare EPS under each, find the share price at which conversion makes sense, and say what Hemvik is really selling.Case 065 →Sirvel Infra capitalises Rs 30 crore of staff and overhead costs into projects that its peers expense. Restate EBITDA and free cash flow on a peer basis, and work out how much of its value at 8x reported EBITDA is an accounting choice.

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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