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087

Case 087Index funds, ETFs and passiveHard

A US equity feeder fund lagged its index by 2.3% in a year: expense ratio 0.6%, the overseas fund's own cost 0.2%, 5% held in cash while the index rose 20%, and currency moves timed differently from the NAV cut-off. Decompose the gap, and explain what happens when the industry's overseas investment limit is reached.

1The situation

Sagarpaar Mutual Fund runs a fund of funds that invests in an overseas US equity index fund. Over the last year the US index returned 20.0% measured in rupees, and the feeder returned 17.7%, a gap of 2.3 percentage points that has drawn complaints from distributors.

The facts: the feeder's own expense ratio is 0.6%; the overseas fund it buys charges 0.2% inside its own NAV; the feeder kept about 5% of its assets in rupee cash and overnight instruments for redemptions, earning about 6%; and its NAV converts the overseas fund's price at an exchange rate taken at a different time of day from the one the benchmark uses. Separately, the industry is close to the overall limit that the regulator sets on mutual fund investment overseas, which has been reached before; confirm the current limit and how it is applied.

2Your task

Decompose the 2.3-point gap into its sources, say which parts recur and which are noise, and explain what happens to the fund and its investors if the overseas limit is reached.

Quick check

Which single source took the most from this year's return?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

The 2.3 points split into 0.6 of expense ratio, 0.2 of overseas fund cost, 0.70 of cash drag and about 0.80 of currency and timing differences. The fees recur every year; the cash drag depends on the market and was largest because the index rose 20%; the timing residual is noise that can reverse. If the overseas limit is reached, the fund stops taking fresh money and SIPs, existing investors stay invested, and listed overseas ETFs can trade at a premium to NAV.

Step 1What are the layers between the index and the feeder's NAV?

Four of them, and they behave differently. Buying a product through an importer and then a local shop means paying two margins, waiting while some stock sits in the back room, and converting the price at whatever rate the shop used that morning. A feeder fundA fund of funds that invests almost all its assets in a single other fund, here an overseas index fund, so its investors carry the costs of both. carries two layers of fees, a cash buffer that earns a different return from the index, and an exchange-rate timing difference. The fees are 0.6% for the feeder and 0.2% inside the overseas fund's NAV, a combined 0.8% that is lost every year whatever the market does.

Step 2How big is the cash drag, and why was it the largest piece?

Price it as a missed return. The 5% in cash earned about 6% while the index made 20%, so it cost 5% x (20% - 6%) = 0.70 points, more than the feeder's own expense ratio. That is the claim distributors miss: in a strong year, the cash costs more than the fee. But it is not a fixed cost. The drag is zero when the index returns the same 6% as cash, and in a falling year it turns into a cushion. In a year the index lost 20%, the same cash would have added about 1.3 points. The cash is a small, permanent bet against the market.

Where the feeder's 2.3 points went, in percentage points16%17%18%19%20%20.0%Indexin rupees-0.60Expenseratio-0.20Overseasfund cost-0.70Cashdrag-0.80Currencyand timing17.7%FeederfundAxis starts at 16%. Red: costs that recur every year. Grey dashed: timing noise that can reverse.
Of the 2.3-point gap, 0.8 is fees that recur every year, 0.70 is cash drag that was large only because the index rose 20%, and 0.80 is currency and timing noise that can reverse in another year.
Step 3What is the residual, and should it worry anyone?

After fees and cash, 0.80 points remain. The benchmark converts the US index into rupees at one exchange rate, while the fund strikes its NAV using the overseas fund's price and a rate taken at a different time. On any day the rupee moves between those two moments, the fund and the benchmark disagree. Over a year these differences mostly net out, so a residual of 0.80 is more likely noise than a leak, but a residual of the same sign every year would be a process problem worth raising. The right check is the residual's history: three years of differences that wander around zero are noise; three years that are all negative are not.

Cash drag depends on the market: it costs most in the best years-20%-10%+10%+20%+30%0%Index return for the year-1.0-0.5+0.5+1.00Cost to the fund, points (up = costs, down = helps)expense ratio, 0.6this year: index +20%, drag 0.70a -20% year: cash helps by 1.36%: cash costs nothing
With 5% in cash earning 6%, the drag rises with the market: it is zero when the index returns 6%, helps by 1.3 points in a 20% fall, and exceeds the 0.6% expense ratio whenever the index returns more than about 18%.
SourceThis year, pointsBehaviour
Feeder expense ratio0.60Every year, fixed
Overseas fund's cost0.20Every year, fixed
Cash drag0.70Grows with the index return; negative in falls
Currency and timing0.80Noise; should wander around zero
Total gap2.30
The gap is 0.8 points of fixed fees, 0.70 points of cash drag driven by a strong year, and 0.80 points of timing noise.
Step 4What happens when the overseas limit is reached?

The regulator caps how much the whole mutual fund industry, and each fund house, can invest abroad. When the cap is reached, a feeder cannot buy more of the overseas fund, so the fund house stops accepting fresh lump sums, new SIP registrations and often existing SIP instalments, and switches into the scheme. Existing investors stay invested and can redeem as usual, but anyone who leaves cannot easily come back, and SIP plans break. For overseas ETFs listed in India, creation of new units stops, so buying pressure on the exchange pushes the market price above the ETF's NAV; buyers then pay a premium that disappears when the limit is relaxed. A fund that keeps accepting money it cannot invest would also raise its cash share, adding to the drag. Confirm the current limits, per fund house and for the industry, before quoting any number.

Close with a view for the distributors. The feeder's structural lag is about 0.8 points a year in fees plus the cost of its cash, which in strong years can add as much again. The fund house can narrow it by holding less cash, using a lower-cost overseas share class, and checking that the timing residual stays around zero. The limit to say: one year is a single draw of the cash and timing effects, so the decomposition should be repeated over several years before anyone calls the fund badly run.

Where candidates lose it

Candidates add up the two fees, get 0.8, and call the remaining 1.5 points tracking error without decomposing it. The interviewer gave the cash figure to see whether you price it against the index return.

The second miss is treating the currency and timing difference as a cost. It is noise that should net to near zero over time; only a residual with the same sign year after year is a problem.

What the interviewer asks next

  • How much cash would the feeder need to hold for the drag to equal the combined fees in a 20% year?
  • Why might the overseas fund's own tracking error matter more for a smaller index?
  • An India-listed US ETF trades at an 8% premium to NAV. What would you tell a client who wants to buy it?
  • How would you design the scheme's cash policy to balance redemptions against drag?
← Case 086A private wealth client asks your view on a tractor maker trading at 14 times earnings after a 30% fall on two weak monsoon quarters. Give a brief bull and bear case and a view in under two minutes.Case 088 →A distributor has Rs 18,000 crore of AUM earning 0.65% trail, 900 relationship managers costing Rs 9 lakh each a year and Rs 20 crore of other costs. What AUM does each manager need to break even, and what happens if trail is cut by 10 basis points?

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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