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  1. 001A bank fixed deposit pays 7% a year. Your interest is taxed at a 30% slab, assumed here for the arithmetic, and inflation runs at 6%. What is your real return after tax, and roughly how many years until the deposit has lost 10% of its purchasing power?Compounding and time valueCoreIndian AMCsDistribution and sales

    Try it first

    Before you calculate: what does the deposit earn in real, after-tax terms?

    Show the worked solution

    About -1.0% a year, so the deposit loses about 10% of its purchasing power in roughly 10 years. Tax at 30% turns 7% into 4.9%. Inflation of 6% then shrinks what that buys: 1.049 divided by 1.06, less 1, is -1.04%. Compounding that loss, Rs 1 lakh buys what Rs 90,094 buys today after ten years.

    Why does the order of tax and inflation matter?

    Think of a salary rise that matches price rises but pushes you into a higher tax bracket. On paper you kept pace; in the shop you did not. Tax is charged on the whole nominal interest, including the part that only makes up for inflation, so the investor pays tax on money that is not a real gain. That is why you take tax off first, on the 7%, and only then compare what is left with inflation.

    Tax of 30% on 7% is 2.1 points, leaving 4.9%. Inflation at 6% is bigger than 4.9%, so the deposit is already behind before any compounding. The quick answer is 4.9 minus 6, about minus 1.1%; the exact answer uses the ratio, because both rates compound.

    7% on paper, minus 1% in what the money buys7.0%Depositrate-2.1Tax at30% slab4.9%Aftertax-5.9Inflationat 6%-1.0%Real,after taxWhat Rs 1 lakh buys, in today's rupeesRs 90,000Rs 1,00,000 todayabout 10 years04812Years held
    A 7% deposit taxed at an assumed 30% slab keeps 4.9%, and 6% inflation turns that into a real return of about -1.0% a year, so Rs 1 lakh held in the deposit buys about 10% less after roughly 10 years.
    The relationship
    rreal=1+i(1−t)1+π−1=1.0491.06−1≈−1.04%r_{\text{real}} = \frac{1 + i(1-t)}{1 + \pi} - 1 = \frac{1.049}{1.06} - 1 \approx -1.04\%
    ithe nominal deposit rate, 7%
    tthe assumed tax slab, 30%
    \piinflation, 6%
    What it says in wordsGrow the money at the after-tax rate, shrink its buying power at the inflation rate, and the ratio is the real return.

    How do you get from minus 1% a year to ten years?

    Losing 1% a year compounds, but slowly. Ten years of losing about 1.04% a year leaves 0.9896 to the power 10, about 0.90, so roughly 10% of purchasing power is gone in about 10 years. The exact figure is the log of 0.9 over the log of 0.9896, which is 10.1 years. A rule of thumb works too: a 1% annual loss takes about 70 years to halve the money, so about a seventh of that for a tenth.

    Say the limitation. The 30% slab and 6% inflation are assumptions for this arithmetic, and your own slab and the inflation you actually face may differ; confirm the current tax rules before using a slab in advice. The point survives any sensible inputs: a deposit is safe in rupees and can still lose ground in what those rupees buy.

    Where candidates lose it

    The fast wrong answer is plus 1%: seven minus six. It forgets that tax is charged on the nominal 7%, including the 6% that only replaces lost buying power. Candidates who say it have shown the interviewer they would mis-sell a deposit to a client in a high bracket.

    The second trap is getting minus 1% and then answering the time question linearly, ten years at 1% is exactly 10%. It is close here, but say that it compounds and give the log form; the interviewer is checking you know why it is close.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What deposit rate would just keep a 30% taxpayer level with 6% inflation?
    • How does the answer change for an investor with no taxable income?
    • Why might a debt fund held for several years be compared with a deposit on an after-tax basis, and what would you check first?
  2. 013A parent needs Rs 50 lakh in 12 years for a child's education and assumes 11% a year. What monthly SIP does that take? And why does waiting three years before starting raise the SIP by about 62%, rather than the 25% most people guess?Compounding and time valueHardIndian AMCsDistribution and sales

    Try it first

    Starting three years late, how much larger is the monthly SIP?

    Show the worked solution

    About Rs 16,691 a month now, and about Rs 27,048 after a three-year wait, 62% more. At 11% a year, taken as 0.917% a month and paid at the start of each month, 144 payments of Rs 16,691 grow to Rs 50 lakh. With 108 payments the SIP must be Rs 27,048. The early years carry the most growth, so losing them costs far more than their share of time.

    How do you get the starting SIP?

    A monthly SIP is a stream of equal payments, each growing until the goal date. The first rupee grows for 144 months, the last for one. Add up what one rupee a month becomes, and the required SIP is the goal divided by that sum. At 11% a year, taken as 11 over 12, about 0.917% a month, one rupee paid at the start of each month for 144 months grows to about 300. Rs 50 lakh divided by 299.6 is Rs 16,691.

    The relationship
    SIP=FV(1+i)n−1i (1+i)=50,00,0001.00917144−10.00917×1.00917≈Rs 16,691\text{SIP} = \frac{FV}{\dfrac{(1+i)^n - 1}{i}\,(1+i)} = \frac{50{,}00{,}000}{\dfrac{1.00917^{144}-1}{0.00917}\times 1.00917} \approx \text{Rs } 16{,}691
    FVthe goal, Rs 50 lakh
    ithe monthly rate, 11% divided by 12
    nthe number of monthly payments, 144
    (1+i)one extra month of growth because each payment is made at the start of the month
    What it says in wordsThe SIP is the goal divided by what a rupee a month grows into over the period.

    Why is the cost of waiting not proportional to the wait?

    Think of planting trees for shade in twelve years. A tree planted in year one is huge by the deadline; one planted in year ten is a sapling. Skip the first three years of planting and you cannot make it up by planting a few extra saplings later. The payments a delay removes are the ones that would have compounded the longest, so the later SIP must replace both the missing payments and the growth they would have earned. Starting now, Rs 24.0 lakh paid in becomes Rs 50 lakh; starting late, Rs 29.2 lakh has to be paid in, because growth contributes Rs 20.8 lakh instead of Rs 26.0 lakh.

    Waiting three years costs 62% more a month, not 25%16,691Start now20,864Guess+25%22,255Same totalover 9 years27,048Wait 3 yearsMonthly SIP needed, RsWhere the Rs 50 lakh comes from, Rs lakhpaid 24.0growth 26.0Start nowpaid 29.2growth 20.8Wait 3 years11% a year assumed, paid at the start of each month
    A three-year delay raises the monthly SIP from Rs 16,691 to Rs 27,048, 62% more, because growth supplies Rs 20.8 lakh of the goal instead of Rs 26.0 lakh and the parent must pay the difference.

    The two guesses are worth naming. Twenty-five per cent comes from three years being a quarter of twelve. Thirty-three per cent comes from spreading the same total contributions over nine years instead of twelve, Rs 22,255 a month. Both ignore growth. The true figure, Rs 27,048, sits well above both.

    Say the limits. Eleven per cent is an assumption, not a forecast, and equity returns arrive unevenly; a plan built on one smooth rate should be checked against lower rates and reviewed as the date nears. Monthly compounding at 11 over 12 slightly overstates an 11% annual rate; using the exact monthly equivalent raises the SIP to about Rs 17,300, and the ratio of about 1.6 survives either way.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common slip is linear thinking: three years of twelve, so 25% more. It treats the SIP as a savings jar with no growth. The interviewer is testing whether you can see that the first payments do the most work.

    The second slip is computing the goal as an ordinary annuity in one place and an annuity due in another, or mixing the 11 over 12 monthly rate with the exact monthly rate. Pick one convention, state it, and keep it for both SIPs; the ratio barely changes.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What lump sum invested today would replace the SIP entirely?
    • If returns came in at 9% instead of 11%, how short would the original SIP fall?
    • How would a 10% yearly step-up in the SIP change the starting amount?
  3. 027A Rs 10,000 monthly SIP for 20 years at 12% a year ends near Rs 1 crore. If the SIP instead rises 10% every year, the corpus roughly doubles to about Rs 2 crore. Why does a step-up matter so much more than it sounds?Compounding and time valueCoreIndian AMCsDistribution and sales

    Try it first

    By year 20, how large is the step-up SIP's monthly instalment compared with the Rs 10,000 it started at?

    Show the worked solution

    Because the step-up compounds the instalment itself, not just the corpus. Rising 10% a year, the instalment reaches about Rs 61,159 a month by year 20, so the money put in grows from Rs 24 lakh to about Rs 69 lakh, 2.9 times as much. The corpus rises from about Rs 100 lakh to about Rs 199 lakh, 2.0 times. It grows less than the money in because the extra money arrives late.

    Why does 10% a year sound small and turn out large?

    Think of a salary that rises 10% a year. Nobody feels rich in year two, but after nineteen raises the salary is more than six times where it started. A step-up SIP works the same way: the 10% is applied to the instalment every year, so the instalment grows geometrically, and so does the money going in. The flat SIP puts in Rs 1.2 lakh every year for 20 years, Rs 24 lakh in all. The step-up SIP puts in Rs 1.2 lakh in year one and about Rs 7.3 lakh in year 20, Rs 68.7 lakh in all.

    A 10% yearly step-up compounds the instalment itselfdark line: flat SIP at Rs 10,000Rs 61,159Monthly instalment, year 1 to year 20step-up: +10% each year, 6.1 times by year 20Year 1Year 2024+7699.9 lakhFlat SIP69+130198.9 lakhStep-up SIPmoney put ingrowthFinal corpus at 1% a month, Rs lakhmoney in x2.9, corpus x2.0
    The step-up instalment climbs from Rs 10,000 to about Rs 61,159 a month over 20 years, so the money put in rises 2.9 times, from Rs 24 lakh to Rs 68.7 lakh. The corpus rises only 2.0 times, from Rs 99.9 lakh to Rs 198.9 lakh, because most of the extra money arrives late and compounds for fewer years.

    Why does the corpus double when the money put in nearly triples?

    Look at when the extra money arrives. The step-up adds nothing in year one and a lot in the final years: 84% of all the extra contributions are paid in the last ten years. Money paid late has little time to compound, so the step-up's extra rupees earn less growth each than the flat SIP's early rupees did. In the flat SIP, growth is about 76% of the corpus; in the step-up SIP it is about 65%. The step-up wins on sheer volume of money, not on better compounding.

    The relationship
    FV=∑y=019m (1.1)y⋅s12⋅(1.01)12(19−y)FV = \sum_{y=0}^{19} m\,(1.1)^{y} \cdot s_{12} \cdot (1.01)^{12(19-y)}
    mthe first year's monthly instalment, Rs 10,000
    (1.1)^ythe step-up applied y times
    s_12the value at year end of twelve monthly payments of 1 at 1% a month, about 12.81
    (1.01)^{12(19-y)}growth from the end of year y+1 to the end of year 20
    What it says in wordsEach year's twelve instalments are a bigger block than the last, and each block compounds only from the year it is paid.

    What is the honest way to say this to a client?

    Say both halves. The step-up roughly doubles the end corpus at the same assumed return, which is a large effect for a small yearly decision. But it does so by asking for much more money, most of it in later years, and it assumes income rises enough to carry a Rs 61,000 monthly instalment. The 12% return is an assumption for the arithmetic, not an expectation, and the doubling holds at any steady return only in rough terms.

    Where candidates lose it

    Candidates often say the step-up doubles the corpus because of compounding, as if the extra money were somehow compounding better. It is the reverse: the extra money arrives late and compounds less. The doubling comes from the money put in nearly tripling.

    The second trap is guessing that a 10% step-up adds about 10% to the corpus, or adds 10% of Rs 24 lakh. The step-up compounds on the instalment, and after nineteen raises the instalment is six times the start. Say 1.1 to the power 19 out loud.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What step-up rate would you need for the corpus to reach Rs 1.5 crore?
    • Would a 10% step-up in the first ten years only get you most of the benefit? Why or why not?
    • How would you compare a step-up SIP with simply starting at Rs 15,000 flat?
  4. 037One investor earns 15% a year for 15 years and then 9% a year for 15 years; another earns 9% first and 15% later. With a lump sum they end with identical money. With a Rs 10,000 monthly SIP they do not. Who ends richer, and why does the order matter only when money arrives over time?Compounding and time valueHardIndian AMCsDistribution and sales

    Try it first

    With the monthly SIP, who ends the 30 years richer?

    Show the worked solution

    The investor who gets 9% first and 15% later ends richer, about Rs 3.62 crore against Rs 2.61 crore. A lump sum sees every year's return, and multiplication does not care about order: 1.15 to the 15 times 1.09 to the 15 is 29.64 either way. An SIP's money arrives over time, so the pot is small early and large late. Whichever return lands on the large late pot decides the result.

    Why does order not matter for a lump sum?

    A shop that marks a price up 15% and then 9% ends at the same tag as one that marks up 9% and then 15%; both multiply the price by 1.15 and by 1.09. A lump sum is one block of money exposed to every year's return, and because returns multiply, their order cannot change the product. Rs 10 lakh grows by 29.64 times in either order, to Rs 2.96 crore.

    Same returns, swapped order: a lump sum does not care, an SIP doesRs 10 lakh lump sum, 30 years2.96 cr15% first2.96 cr9% firstidentical: 1.15^15 x 1.09^15= 29.64 in either order1 cr2 cr3 cr4 cryr 0yr 10yr 15yr 20yr 30returns swap62 lakh37 lakh9% first ends at Rs 3.62 crore15% first ends at Rs 2.61 croreRs 10,000 a month SIP corpus
    A Rs 10 lakh lump sum ends at Rs 2.96 crore in either order, but a Rs 10,000 monthly SIP does not: the 15%-first corpus leads at year 15 with Rs 61.6 lakh against Rs 36.9 lakh, is overtaken in year 24, and ends at Rs 2.61 crore against Rs 3.62 crore.

    What breaks the symmetry in an SIP?

    Think of a savings jar you add Rs 100 to every week. A bonus that doubles the jar is worth far more in December than in January, because in December the jar holds a year of savings. In an SIP, each instalment only experiences the returns after it is paid, so a return applied when the pot is large moves more rupees than the same return applied when the pot is small. After 15 years of Rs 10,000 a month, Rs 18 lakh has gone in and the pot holds Rs 61.6 lakh or Rs 36.9 lakh. The next 15 years apply to that pot plus Rs 18 lakh more, and it is the 15% that lands on it in one order and the 9% in the other.

    The relationship
    corpus=∑t=1360m∏s=t360(1+is)\text{corpus} = \sum_{t=1}^{360} m \prod_{s=t}^{360} (1 + i_s)
    mthe monthly instalment, Rs 10,000
    i_sthe return in month s, 15% or 9% a year as a monthly rate
    tthe month the instalment is paid
    What it says in wordsEach instalment grows only by the returns from its own month onward, so late returns touch every instalment and early returns touch only the first few.

    What does this mean for a real SIP investor?

    For anyone still contributing, the returns in the final years carry the most weight, because that is when the most money is exposed. A poor decade at the start of an SIP mostly costs a little growth on a small pot; the same decade at the end hits the whole accumulated corpus. The investor who saw 15% first was ahead by Rs 24.7 lakh at year 15 and still finished behind. The limits: real returns do not arrive in two neat blocks, and nobody can choose the order. The point is what the order does, which is why a plan near its goal often moves money towards steadier assets.

    Where candidates lose it

    The trap is answering that order does not matter at all, because candidates remember that multiplication commutes and apply it to the SIP. That holds only when the same money sees every return. Say who is exposed to which year before you answer.

    The second trap is picking the 15%-first investor because early growth compounds for longer. That is true per rupee, but there are very few rupees early on. The weight of the pot, not the length of compounding, decides it.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Which order wins for a retiree who is withdrawing rather than contributing?
    • If the SIP stopped at year 15 and the money stayed invested, would order matter for the rest?
    • How would a step-up SIP change the size of the gap between the two orders?
  5. 049A Rs 10,000 monthly SIP runs for 20 years at 12% a year, taken as 1% a month. What share of the final corpus appears only in the last five years? Most people guess about a quarter.Compounding and time valueHardIndian AMCsDistribution and sales

    Try it first

    What share of the 20-year corpus is added in years 16 to 20?

    Show the worked solution

    About half: 49.5%. At 1% a month the corpus is about Rs 50.5 lakh after 15 years and Rs 99.9 lakh after 20, so the final five years add Rs 49.5 lakh. Only Rs 6 lakh of that is new instalments; about Rs 41.2 lakh is growth on the pot already built. An SIP's corpus is back-loaded, which is why stopping early costs far more than the missed instalments.

    Why is the guess of a quarter so far off?

    A quarter assumes the corpus grows by the same amount each year, like a piggy bank filled with the same coins every month. Compounding is not a piggy bank. Each year's growth is a percentage of a pot that is already larger than the year before, so the rupee gains get bigger every year and the corpus is heavily back-loaded. After 15 years of Rs 10,000 a month the pot holds about Rs 50.5 lakh, and five more years at 1% a month multiply that by 1.01 to the 60th, about 1.82, before a single new instalment is counted.

    Half the corpus appears in the last quarter of the time255075100yr 0yr 5yr 10yr 15yr 20Corpus, Rs lakh23.250.599.9last 5 yearsWhat the last five years addInstalments: 6.0New-money growth: 2.2Growth on theyear-15 pot: 41.2Total Rs 49.5 lakh= 49.5% of the corpus
    The SIP corpus reaches Rs 23.2 lakh at year 10 and Rs 50.5 lakh at year 15, then adds Rs 49.5 lakh in the last five years to end at Rs 99.9 lakh; of that addition, Rs 41.2 lakh is growth on the year-15 pot and only Rs 6 lakh is new instalments.

    Where exactly does the last five years' money come from?

    Split the Rs 49.5 lakh three ways. The 60 new instalments put in Rs 6 lakh. Those instalments earn about Rs 2.2 lakh of growth by year 20. The year-15 pot of Rs 50.5 lakh earns about Rs 41.2 lakh. The engine of the final years is the money already invested, not the money still to come. For contrast, the first ten years build only about Rs 23.2 lakh, 23% of the final corpus, though half the instalments are paid in them.

    The relationship
    share16-20=1−FV180FV240,FVn=m (1.01)n−10.01 (1.01)\text{share}_{16\text{-}20} = 1 - \frac{FV_{180}}{FV_{240}}, \qquad FV_n = m\,\frac{(1.01)^n - 1}{0.01}\,(1.01)
    mthe monthly instalment, Rs 10,000
    FV_nthe corpus after n monthly instalments paid at the start of each month
    1.01one plus the 1% monthly return
    What it says in wordsThe last five years' share is one minus the year-15 corpus divided by the year-20 corpus.

    What does this mean for an investor thinking of stopping at year 15?

    It depends what stopping means. Redeeming at year 15 gives up about Rs 49.5 lakh, half the eventual corpus, to save Rs 6 lakh of instalments. Pausing the instalments but staying invested is far cheaper: the year-15 pot alone grows to about Rs 91.7 lakh, so the cost is about Rs 8.2 lakh. The 12% is an assumption for the arithmetic; real returns vary year to year, and a bad last five years would cut the back-loaded gain sharply, which is the sequence risk of an SIP.

    Where candidates lose it

    The trap is answering a quarter because five years is a quarter of twenty. It treats the corpus as if it grew in a straight line. Name the compounding before you name a number.

    The second loss is crediting the last five years' gain to the last five years' instalments. Only Rs 6 lakh of the roughly Rs 49 lakh is new money; most of it is growth on the pot built in the first fifteen years.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What share of the corpus appears in the last five years of a 30-year SIP at the same return?
    • At 8% a year instead of 12%, is the corpus more or less back-loaded?
    • Why does starting an SIP five years earlier matter more than adding five years at the end?
  6. 059Would you rather receive Rs 50 lakh at 50 or Rs 1 crore at 60? At 8% the Rs 50 lakh wins, at 7% the crore wins. Find the rate at which you are indifferent, and say why it is the rule of 72 again.Compounding and time valueCoreIndian AMCsDistribution and sales

    Try it first

    Before you work it: where is the indifference rate?

    Show the worked solution

    You are indifferent at about 7.18% a year. Rs 50 lakh at 50 matches Rs 1 crore at 60 only if it doubles in ten years, so (1 + r) to the 10th = 2, which gives 7.18%. The rule of 72 says money doubles in 72 / rate years, so doubling in 10 years needs about 72 / 10 = 7.2%. At 8% the early money grows to Rs 107.9 lakh; at 7% only Rs 98.4 lakh.

    What is the question really asking?

    An uncle offers you his old car now or a new one in ten years. You cannot answer until you know what you would do with the car meanwhile. Money received earlier can be invested, so the fair comparison is what the Rs 50 lakh grows to by 60, set against the Rs 1 crore paid then. At 8%, Rs 50 lakh x 1.08 to the 10th is Rs 107.9 lakh, more than a crore, so the early money wins. At 7%, it is Rs 98.4 lakh, just short, so the crore wins. The answer flips somewhere between.

    Rs 50 lakh at 50, grown to 60, against Rs 1 crore at 607080901001101201304%5%6%7%8%9%10%growth rate earned on the Rs 50 lakhRs lakh at 60Rs 1 crore at 60Indifferent at 7.18%the rate that doubles money in 10 years7%: 98.48%: 107.9Above the line: take the Rs 50 lakh at 50Below the line: wait for the crore
    Rs 50 lakh received at 50 grows to more than Rs 1 crore by 60 at any rate above 7.18%, reaching Rs 107.9 lakh at 8% and only Rs 98.4 lakh at 7%, so the choice turns on the rate that doubles money in ten years.

    Why is the crossover the rule of 72?

    The crore is exactly twice the 50 lakh, and the wait is ten years. So the choice reduces to one question: can you double your money in ten years? The rate that does that is 7.18%, and the rule of 72A shortcut for compounding: money doubles in roughly 72 divided by the yearly rate in years, so 7.2% doubles in about ten years. gives 72 / 10 = 7.2% in your head. The rule works because the doubling time is ln 2 / ln(1 + r), and ln 2 is 0.693; using 72 instead of 69.3 corrects for the rates people usually quote being near 8%.

    The relationship
    50(1+r)10=100  ⇒  r=21/10−1≈7.18%≈7210%50(1+r)^{10} = 100 \;\Rightarrow\; r = 2^{1/10} - 1 \approx 7.18\% \approx \frac{72}{10}\%
    50the early sum, Rs lakh, received at 50
    100the later sum, Rs lakh, received at 60
    rthe yearly rate earned on the early money
    What it says in wordsWhen the later sum is twice the earlier one, the indifference rate is simply the rate that doubles money over the wait.

    The arithmetic is not the whole decision, and the interviewer will want you to say so. The rate that matters is the after-tax rate you can actually earn, not a headline rate. Rs 1 crore promised at 60 carries the risk that the promiser does not pay; Rs 50 lakh in hand does not. And a person who needs the money at 50, for a child's education say, values it more than the arithmetic does.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common slip is 10%: the money must double, ten years, so 10% a year. That is simple interest thinking, and it misses that compounding does part of the doubling. The other slip is 5%, from splitting the 50 lakh gain evenly over ten years.

    The quieter loss is stopping at the number. Name the assumptions: the rate is after tax, the later payment is certain, and the person has no need for the money before 60.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The offer becomes Rs 1.5 crore at 60. What is the indifference rate now?
    • How does inflation change the comparison if both sums are in today's rupees?
    • Why does the rule of 72 work less well at a 25% rate?
  7. 070Two people each invest Rs 10,000 a month at 12% a year until they are 60, one starting at 25 and one at 35. The early starter puts in only Rs 12 lakh more, yet ends with about 3.4 times the corpus. Why?Compounding and time valueWarm upIndian AMCsDistribution and sales

    Try it first

    Of the early starter's corpus at 60, roughly how much comes from the first ten years of saving alone?

    Show the worked solution

    Because the extra ten years come first, and the earliest rupees compound the longest. At 1% a month, the early starter reaches about Rs 6.50 crore and the late starter about Rs 1.90 crore, 3.4 times less, though the gap in money paid in is only Rs 12 lakh. That Rs 12 lakh, saved from 25 to 35, grows to about Rs 4.60 crore by 60, 71% of the early starter's corpus.

    Why is the early starter so far ahead for so little extra?

    Plant a mango sapling at 25 and another at 35, and at 60 the first tree is not slightly bigger; it has had ten more seasons of growth on a trunk that kept getting larger. Money saved early does not just add ten more years of deposits; it gives every rupee in those years twenty-five more years of compounding after them. The late starter pays in Rs 30 lakh over 25 years and ends with Rs 1.90 crore. The early starter pays Rs 42 lakh over 35 years and ends with Rs 6.50 crore.

    Rs 10,000 a month at 12%: start at 25 or at 35First ten yearsRs 12 lakh paid in01234567Rs crore2530354045505560ageStart at 25: Rs 6.50 croreRs 42 lakh paid inStart at 35: Rs 1.90 croreRs 30 lakh paid inRatio at 60: 3.4 timesfor only Rs 12 lakh more paid in
    Rs 10,000 a month at 12% grows to Rs 6.50 crore by 60 when started at 25 and to Rs 1.90 crore when started at 35, because the Rs 12 lakh saved in the first ten years alone grows to about Rs 4.60 crore.

    How much does the first decade contribute on its own?

    Split the early starter's plan in two. From 25 to 35 she saves Rs 12 lakh, which is about Rs 23.2 lakh by 35. From then she saves exactly what the late starter saves, so that part ends at Rs 1.90 crore. The Rs 23.2 lakh from the first decade compounds for 25 more years at 1% a month and becomes about Rs 4.60 crore, 71% of her final corpus. Her first ten years are worth more at 60 than the late starter's entire 25 years of saving.

    The relationship
    FV=10,000×(1.01)n−10.01×1.01n=420:Rs 6.50 crn=300:Rs 1.90 crFV = 10{,}000 \times \frac{(1.01)^n - 1}{0.01} \times 1.01 \qquad n = 420: \text{Rs }6.50\text{ cr} \qquad n = 300: \text{Rs }1.90\text{ cr}
    10,000the monthly investment, Rs
    0.01the monthly rate, 12% a year taken as 1% a month
    nthe number of monthly instalments, 420 from 25 and 300 from 35
    x 1.01each instalment is invested at the start of the month
    What it says in wordsThe future value of a monthly plan grows with the number of months as a power, not in a straight line, so extra months at the start count most.

    State the assumptions, because the size of the gap depends on them. A steady 12% every year is a simplification; real equity returns swing, and the order of good and bad years matters for a monthly saver. Inflation shrinks both corpora in today's rupees, though not the ratio. And the gap narrows if the late starter saves more each month; to match the early starter at 60 she would have to invest about 3.4 times as much, around Rs 34,000 a month.

    Where candidates lose it

    The trap is reasoning in straight lines: ten more years out of thirty-five, so about 40% more money. Compounding makes the earliest deposits the most valuable, not the least, and candidates who scale by years miss the point of the question.

    The second miss is quoting the corpus without the assumptions. Say it rests on a constant 12%, monthly compounding and deposits at the start of each month, and that real returns arrive unevenly.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • How much a month would the late starter need to invest to match Rs 6.5 crore at 60?
    • The early starter stops saving at 35 and never adds another rupee. What does she have at 60?
    • How does a 10% return instead of 12% change the ratio between the two?
  8. 082Without a calculator: at 8% a year, how long does Rs 1 lakh take to double, and how close does the rule of 72 get to the exact answer? Then do the same at 6% and at 12%.Compounding and time valueWarm upIndian AMCsDistribution and sales

    Try it first

    How far is the rule of 72 from the exact doubling time at 8%?

    Show the worked solution

    About 9 years at 8%; the exact figure is 9.006 years, so the rule of 72 is out by about 2 days. At 6% the rule gives 12 years against an exact 11.90, and at 12% it gives 6 years against an exact 6.12. In the range where fund returns usually sit, the rule is off by weeks, not years.

    Why does 72 divided by the rate give the doubling time?

    If the price of a Rs 100 thali rises 8% a year, it costs about Rs 200 in nine years. You did not need a calculator, only the fact that 72 over 8 is 9. The exact doubling time is ln 2 divided by ln(1 + r), and for rates of a few per cent ln(1 + r) is close to r, so the answer is close to 69.3 divided by the rate in per cent. Using 72 instead of 69.3 does two jobs: it nudges the answer up to correct for rates around 8%, and it divides cleanly by 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9 and 12, which is what makes it a mental tool.

    The relationship
    t=ln⁡2ln⁡(1+r)≈72100 r0.6931ln⁡1.08=9.006t = \frac{\ln 2}{\ln(1+r)} \approx \frac{72}{100\,r} \qquad \frac{0.6931}{\ln 1.08} = 9.006
    tyears for money to double
    rthe annual rate, as a decimal
    lnthe natural logarithm
    What it says in wordsThe exact doubling time is log 2 over log of one plus the rate, and 72 over the rate in per cent is a close, easy stand-in.
    Rule of 72 against the exact doubling time, in yearsAt 6% a yearrule is long by 38 days12.0011.90At 8% a yearrule is short by 2 days9.009.006At 12% a yearrule is short by 42 days6.006.12036912Years to doublerule of 72exact
    The rule of 72 gives 12, 9 and 6 years at 6%, 8% and 12%, against exact doubling times of 11.90, 9.006 and 6.12 years, so in the range fund returns occupy it is wrong by weeks at most.

    Where does the rule start to slip?

    At both ends, but slowly. At 6% it says 12 years and the truth is 11.90, so it is long by about 38 days. At 12% it says 6 years against 6.12, short by about 42 days. The rule is almost exact near 8% and drifts by a little over a month either side, which is far inside the uncertainty of any return assumption you would feed it. Only at high rates does the drift become worth mentioning: at 24% the rule says 3 years against an exact 3.22.

    Two uses in a fund interview. Turn a return into something a client can feel: at 8%, money doubles roughly every nine years, so it quadruples in about eighteen. And run a claim backwards to test it: a fund that says it tripled money in ten years has compounded at about 11.6% a year, because tripling is about 1.6 doublings, one every 6.3 years, and 72 over 6.3 is a little over 11.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common slip is dividing 100 by the rate, which gives 12.5 years at 8%. That is what simple interest would give, with no interest earned on interest, and it overstates the wait by about three and a half years.

    The quieter loss is presenting the rule as exact. Say 9 years, then add that the exact figure is 9.006, so the interviewer hears that you know what the shortcut is and where it stops working.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • How long does money take to triple at 8%?
    • Inflation runs at 6%. How long before Rs 1 lakh buys half what it buys today?
    • What number would you use in place of 72 for continuously compounded rates, and why?
  9. 091What lump sum today is equivalent to a pension of Rs 50,000 a month for 25 years, if money can earn 7% a year? And why is that so far below the Rs 1.5 crore that the pension will actually pay out?Compounding and time valueCoreIndian AMCsDistribution and sales

    Try it first

    Roughly what lump sum today matches the pension?

    Show the worked solution

    About Rs 70.7 lakh, under half of the Rs 1.5 crore paid out. Discount each of the 300 monthly payments of Rs 50,000 at 7% a year, about 0.58% a month, and add them up. Payments in the first years are worth almost their face value; payments in year 25 are worth less than a fifth of it. Lump sum and pension are equivalent because Rs 70.7 lakh invested at 7% would pay exactly Rs 50,000 a month for 25 years.

    Why is a rupee paid later worth less today?

    A relative offers you Rs 1 lakh either today or in ten years. Taking it today is better even with no inflation at all, because you could put it in a deposit and have well over Rs 1 lakh in ten years. The value today of a future payment is the amount you would need to invest now to produce it, so the longer the wait, the smaller that amount. A pension is a long string of future payments, and each one has its own wait. The lump-sum value is the sum of all those discounted payments.

    Rs 6 lakh a year for 25 years, and what each year is worth todayPaid over 25 years: Rs 150 lakhWorth today at 7%: Rs 70.7 lakh, 47% of the total360Rs lakh15101520255.783.081.08Year of payment (outline: Rs 6 lakh paid; green: worth today)
    Each year of the pension pays Rs 6 lakh, but discounted at 7% the first year is worth Rs 5.78 lakh today and the twenty-fifth only Rs 1.08 lakh, so 25 years of payments totalling Rs 1.5 crore are worth about Rs 70.7 lakh today.

    How do you add up 300 discounted payments without a spreadsheet?

    Use the annuity formula, which is the sum of a series that shrinks by the same factor each month. With a monthly rate of 7% divided by 12 and 300 payments, each rupee of monthly pension is worth about Rs 141.5 today, so Rs 50,000 a month is worth about Rs 70.7 lakh. A quick check by years: Rs 6 lakh a year for 25 years at 7%, discounted once a year, gives about Rs 69.9 lakh, close because monthly payments arrive a little earlier on average.

    The relationship
    PV=W×1−(1+i)−ni=50,000×1−(1.005833)−3000.005833≈70.7 lakhPV = W \times \frac{1 - (1+i)^{-n}}{i} = 50{,}000 \times \frac{1 - (1.005833)^{-300}}{0.005833} \approx 70.7 \text{ lakh}
    Wthe monthly pension, Rs 50,000
    ithe monthly rate, 7% divided by 12
    nthe number of monthly payments, 300
    What it says in wordsThe lump sum is the monthly payment times a factor that adds up every payment's discount for its own wait.

    Where does most of the gap come from?

    From the back half of the pension. At 7%, money doubles in about ten years, so every payment after roughly year 10 is worth less than half its face value today, and the last ones are worth under a fifth. The first ten years pay Rs 60 lakh and are worth about Rs 43.1 lakh; the last fifteen pay Rs 90 lakh and are worth only about Rs 27.7 lakh. For an adviser comparing a pension offer with a lump sum, this is the number that matters, and the rate is the assumption that moves it most: at a lower rate the lump sum needed rises, at a higher one it falls.

    Two limits to state. The 7% must be a rate the client could realistically earn with similar safety; using a risky return to discount a guaranteed pension flatters the lump sum. And Rs 50,000 a month is fixed in rupees, so its buying power in year 25 is far smaller than today; if the pension rises with inflation, its value is much higher.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common error is quoting Rs 1.5 crore, or something near it, because that is what the client will receive. It treats a rupee in year 25 as worth a rupee today, which is exactly what the question is testing.

    The overcorrection is discounting the whole Rs 1.5 crore by 25 years and getting about Rs 28 lakh, as if all the money arrived on the last day. Most of it arrives much earlier. Discount payment by payment, or use the annuity factor, and say the rate is an assumption.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The pension rises 5% a year. Roughly how does the lump-sum value change?
    • The client is offered Rs 60 lakh now instead of the pension. What discount rate makes the two equal, roughly?
    • Why might the right discount rate for a government pension differ from that for a private one?
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