Case 053Portfolio construction and optimisationWarm up
A stock in a Rs 2,000 crore flexi cap fund has rallied from 8% to 12% of the fund, above its 10% single-stock limit. How much must be sold to bring it to 9.5%, what does the sale cost, and what must the fund confirm about the rule?
1The situation
Virupaksha Flexi Cap Fund has net assets of Rs 2,000 crore. Its scheme documents cap any single company at 10% of net assets. One holding, bought at an 8% weight, has rallied and is now 12% of the fund. The fund did not buy any more shares; the breach came entirely from the price.
The stock trades about Rs 25 crore a day. The dealing desk is comfortable selling up to 20% of daily volume without moving the price much, and estimates all-in dealing cost, brokerage plus market impact, at 0.30% of the amount sold. The fund manager still likes the company and would prefer to keep as much as the rules allow.
2Your task
How much must be sold to bring the weight to 9.5%, how long will it take and what will it cost, and why 9.5% rather than exactly 10%?
Quick check
How much must Virupaksha sell to bring the stock to 9.5% of the fund?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
Sell about Rs 50 crore, over roughly 10 trading days, at a cost of about Rs 15 lakh. The position is Rs 240 crore and 9.5% of an unchanged Rs 2,000 crore is Rs 190 crore. Trimming to 9.5% rather than 10% leaves room for a 5.8% further rise before the next breach. Confirm the current regulatory limit and the time allowed to cure a price-driven breach with compliance.
Step 1How did an 8% position become 12% without a single purchase?
Because weights move with prices. If the stock rises and the rest of the fund does not, the stock's share of the pie grows. With the rest of the fund flat, a rise of about 57% takes an 8% holding to 12%. It is the same as one tenant in a building whose rent triples while the others stay put: his share of the landlord's income jumps without anyone signing anything new. A breach like this is usually called passiveCaused by market movement or redemptions rather than by the fund buying more; rules often allow a set period to correct it rather than forcing an immediate sale., and it is treated differently from one the manager caused by buying.
Step 2How much must be sold, and why is the cash not a problem?
The position is 12% of Rs 2,000 crore, Rs 240 crore. Selling shares turns them into cash inside the same fund, so net assets stay at Rs 2,000 crore and the target is simply 9.5% of that, Rs 190 crore. The sale is Rs 240 minus Rs 190, Rs 50 crore. The cash is then redeployed across the other holdings or kept as the fund's normal cash buffer; either way it does not change the arithmetic.
Step 3How long does the trim take, and what does it cost?
At 20% of Rs 25 crore of daily volume the desk can sell about Rs 5 crore a day, so Rs 50 crore takes about 10 trading days. At 0.30% all in, the cost is about Rs 15 lakh, which is 0.75 basis points of the fund. The cost that matters more is the price risk while you sell: ten days of a volatile stock can move the weight again, so the desk works the order and the manager watches the weight daily. Dumping the whole Rs 50 crore on one day to be done with it would likely push the price down and cost far more than the careful route.
Step 4Why trim to 9.5% rather than exactly 10%, and what must the fund confirm?
A trim to exactly 10% leaves no room at all: any rise in the stock breaches again, and the fund pays dealing costs over and over. Trimming to 9.5% buys room for a 5.8% rise with the rest of the fund flat; 9.0% would buy 12.3%. The size of the buffer is a trade-off between keeping a stock the manager likes and the cost of repeated trims. On the rule itself, treat 10% as the case's figure. Confirm with compliance the current single-issuer limit for this scheme category, how it is measured, and the period allowed to correct a breach caused by market movement, because the regulator sets these and revises them.
Where candidates lose it
The common slip is assuming the fund shrinks when you sell and solving for the wrong target, or trimming only Rs 40 crore to reach exactly 10%. The first misunderstands where the cash goes; the second leaves the fund one good day from another breach.
The second loss is treating a passive breach as an emergency and selling the whole amount in one session. The rule gives time for a reason, and a fire sale costs investors more than the breach did.
What the interviewer asks next
- The fund faces heavy redemptions next week. How does that change the trim?
- Would you rather trim this stock or add to the other holdings with new inflows, and why?
- How would you report the breach and the cure to the fund's trustees?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
