Case 064Fixed income, credit and LDIHard
A gilt fund expects the 2s10s curve to steepen. Size a DV01-neutral steepener that buys Rs 100 crore of 2-year bonds (duration 1.87) against 10-year bonds (duration 7.0), and work out the P&L if the 2-year falls 20 basis points and the 10-year rises 20.
1The situation
The manager of Setu Gilt Fund expects the gap between 10-year and 2-year government yields to widen by about 40 basis points over the next quarter, but has no strong view on whether rates overall go up or down. Today the 2-year yields 6.6% and the 10-year 7.1%, so the 2s10s spread is 50 basis points.
The trade buys Rs 100 crore of 2-year bonds, modified duration 1.87, funded partly from the fund's treasury bills yielding about 6.5%, and sells 10-year bonds the fund already holds, modified duration 7.0. The manager wants the trade to make or lose money only from the change in slope.
2Your task
How much 10-year does the fund sell, what does the trade make if the 2-year falls 20 basis points and the 10-year rises 20, and what does it cost to hold?
Quick check
How much 10-year does the fund sell against Rs 100 crore of 2-year?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
Sell about Rs 26.7 crore of 10-year bonds; if the 2-year falls 20 and the 10-year rises 20, the trade makes about Rs 74.8 lakh. Each leg moves Rs 1.87 lakh per basis point, so the P&L is Rs 1.87 lakh times the 40 basis point change in slope. A parallel move of any size makes nothing. Holding it costs about Rs 6 lakh a year of carry, about 3.2 basis points of steepening.
Step 1Why size the legs by DV01 rather than by rupees?
A seesaw balances on weight times distance from the pivot, not on weight alone: a child far out balances an adult near the middle. A curve trade balances when each leg gains or loses the same rupees for a one basis point move, and long bonds move far more per rupee than short ones. Rs 100 crore of 2-year at duration 1.87 has a DV01The rupee change in a position value for a one basis point, 0.01%, change in its yield. of Rs 100 crore times 1.87 times 0.0001, Rs 1.87 lakh. Each rupee of 10-year is 7.0 over 1.87, about 3.7 times as sensitive, so only Rs 26.71 crore is needed for the same Rs 1.87 lakh.
Step 2What does the trade make in the manager's scenario, and in others?
The 2-year falls 20 basis points, so the long 2-year gains Rs 1.87 lakh times 20, Rs 37.4 lakh. The 10-year rises 20, so the bonds sold would have lost Rs 1.87 lakh times 20, which the fund avoids, a gain of Rs 37.4 lakh against holding them. Total Rs 74.8 lakh, which is simply Rs 1.87 lakh times the 40 basis point change in the spread. Any steepening of 40 basis points pays the same, whether it comes from the short end falling, the long end rising, or both; any parallel move pays nothing.
Step 3What does it cost to hold, and what can make it miss?
The trade gives up income. It earns 6.6% on Rs 100 crore of 2-year, but gives up 6.5% on Rs 73.3 crore of treasury bills and 7.1% on Rs 26.7 crore of 10-year. Net, it costs about Rs 6.0 lakh a year, so the curve must steepen about 3.2 basis points a year just to pay for holding the position, before any roll-down effects, which this simple count ignores. The trade also misses if the curve flattens: a 40 basis point flattening loses Rs 74.8 lakh. And DV01 neutrality holds only for small moves; after a large move the durations change and the legs need resizing.
Say what the trade expresses, too. A steepener of this kind usually reflects a view that the central bank will ease, pulling short yields down, or that long yields will rise on supply or inflation worries. If the view is really about easing, the manager should say so, because a bull steepener and a bear steepener come from different economies even though this trade pays the same in both.
Where candidates lose it
The classic loss is matching notionals: selling Rs 100 crore of 10-year against Rs 100 crore of 2-year. That position is dominated by the 10-year leg and loses Rs 256.5 lakh if all yields fall 50 basis points, a duration bet dressed as a curve trade.
The second is forgetting carry. An upward-sloping curve means the steepener gives up income every day it is held, so the view has to arrive soon enough to pay for the wait.
What the interviewer asks next
- How would you express the same view with interest rate swaps instead of bonds?
- The 2-year's duration falls to 1.80 after a month. What do you do?
- How would you size the trade so it risks no more than 10 basis points of the fund's NAV on a 20 basis point flattening?
- When would you prefer a butterfly to a simple steepener?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
