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096

Case 096Risk management and limit breachesHard

A bank treasury held Rs 1,500 crore of government bonds with a modified duration of 8 and lost about Rs 180 crore when yields rose 150 basis points. Its PV01 limit was Rs 50 lakh against an actual Rs 1.2 crore. Work out the loss and explain what failed.

SCSchrodersNew York · 2020

1The situation

Pratyush Cooperative Bank, a mid-sized urban cooperative bank with a net worth of Rs 650 crore, held Rs 1,500 crore of government bonds in its treasury book. The portfolio's modified duration was 8, built up over the previous year by buying long bonds when yields were falling, and its coupon income averaged 7.1%.

The board had set a PV01 limit of Rs 50 lakh for the book. The daily limit report showed actual PV01 of Rs 1.2 crore for months; each breach was marked noted by the treasury head. Over the next six months yields rose 150 basis points, in monthly steps of 10, 20, 35, 25, 30, 30 basis points, and the book showed a mark-to-market loss of about Rs 180 crore.

2Your task

Reconcile the loss to the position, show how much of it the limit would have prevented, and explain what failed and how you would fix it.

Quick check

If the book had been held at its Rs 50 lakh PV01 limit, roughly what would the 150 basis point rise have cost?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

The loss is simple: Rs 1,500 crore times a duration of 8 times 1.5% is Rs 180 crore, Rs 1.2 crore for each of 150 basis points. Held at its Rs 50 lakh limit the book would have lost Rs 75 crore, so Rs 105 crore came from the breach. The measure worked and the report showed red every day. What failed was governance: breaches had no consequence, the person breaching approved his own excess, and no stress test tied the position to capital.

Step 1Does the loss reconcile to the position?

Start with the number, because a loss case is easiest to read once you know whether the loss was a surprise. A household on a floating-rate home loan knows that each 1% rise in the rate adds a fixed amount to the instalment; nothing about the rise is mysterious once the loan size is known. Duration does the same job for a bond book: a modified duration of 8 means about 8% of value lost for each 1% rise in yields, so 1.5% costs about 12% of Rs 1,500 crore, Rs 180 crore.

The relationship
ΔP≈−Dmod×P×Δy=−8×1,500×0.015=−180,PV01=8×1,500×0.0001=1.2\Delta P \approx -D_{mod} \times P \times \Delta y = -8 \times 1{,}500 \times 0.015 = -180, \qquad \text{PV01} = 8 \times 1{,}500 \times 0.0001 = 1.2
D_modmodified duration, the percentage price change for a 1% change in yield
Pmarket value of the book, Rs 1,500 crore
Delta ychange in yield, 150 basis points or 0.015
PV01rupee loss for a one basis point rise, here in Rs crore
What it says in wordsRs 1.2 crore per basis point times 150 basis points is Rs 180 crore; the reported loss is exactly what the position implied.

Convexity trims the first-order figure a little. With convexity of about 85, the correction is half of 85 times 0.015 squared times Rs 1,500 crore, about Rs 14 crore, so the precise price loss is nearer Rs 166 crore. Six months of coupons, about Rs 53 crore, softened the total return but not the mark-to-market line the board saw. The point stands either way: there was no hidden risk here, only a known one that was too big.

Step 2How much of the loss did the breach cause?

Compare the actual book with the same book held at its limit. At a PV01 of Rs 50 lakh the 150 basis point rise would have cost Rs 75 crore, about 11.5% of net worth; at Rs 1.2 crore it cost Rs 180 crore, 27.7% of net worth. The Rs 105 crore gap is the price of the breach. Staying inside the limit meant either a book of about Rs 625 crore at duration 8, or the full Rs 1,500 crore at a duration of about 3.3.

Every basis point cost 2.4 times what the limit allowed50100150200250050100150200Rise in yields, basis pointsLoss, Rs croreactual book: Rs 180 crat the limit: Rs 75 cr240100gap Rs 105 cr
Pratyush's actual book lost Rs 1.2 crore per basis point, Rs 180 crore over the 150 basis point rise, against Rs 75 crore for a book held at the Rs 50 lakh PV01 limit; the Rs 105 crore gap is the cost of the breach.
MonthYield move, bpCumulative, bpLoss, actual, Rs crLoss at limit, Rs crActual loss / net worth
Apr+10+10125.01.8%
May+20+303615.05.5%
Jun+35+657832.512.0%
Jul+25+9010845.016.6%
Aug+30+12014460.022.2%
Sep+30+15018075.027.7%
Month by month, the bank's loss grew in line with its Rs 1.2 crore PV01, reaching Rs 180 crore and 27.7% of net worth by September, while the same rise would have cost Rs 75 crore at the limit.
Step 3What actually failed?

The measurement did not fail; the report showed 240% of limit every single day. What failed is that a breach had no consequence: it was marked noted by the same treasury head whose position caused it, and nobody above him was forced to decide. A limit that can be exceeded indefinitely is a reporting line, not a limit. Three further gaps let it run: risk reported to the treasury rather than independently to the board's risk committee, no stress test translating PV01 into a share of net worth, and an incentive that counted the extra coupon from long bonds as profit while the rate risk sat unpriced.

The limit report showed the breach every month; nobody acted on itTreasury limit report: government securities bookMonthYield rise, bpPV01, Rs crLimitUsedStatusApr+101.200.50240%Breach: notedMay+301.200.50240%Breach: notedJun+651.200.50240%Breach: notedJul+901.200.50240%Breach: notedAug+1201.200.50240%Breach: notedSep+1501.200.50240%Breach: notedMark-to-market loss by September: Rs 180 croreWhat it costRs 180 cractual lossRs 75 crloss inside the limitRs 105 crfrom the excess alone28% of net worthagainst 11.5% if thelimit had held
Pratyush's limit report flagged the PV01 breach at 240% of limit in every month of the six-month rise, each time marked noted, while the mark-to-market loss climbed to Rs 180 crore, Rs 105 crore of it from the excess over the limit.
Step 4What would you change so it cannot happen again?

Give every breach a clock and an owner. A breach should force one of two outcomes within a few days: the position is cut back inside the limit, or the board or its risk committee approves a temporary excess in writing, with a date. Add a stress limit tied to capital: a 200 basis point shock on this book costs Rs 240 crore, 37% of net worth, a number no board would sign off if it saw it. Make the risk function report around the treasury, not through it. The limit of all this is that rules only work if someone senior is willing to enforce them against a desk that is making money; say that in the interview.

One caution belongs in the presentation. How such a bank books and values its investments depends on the regulator's current classification and valuation rules for bank investment portfolios, and moving bonds between categories to avoid showing a loss is a known pattern in cases like this. Confirm the rules in force before judging how the loss should have been reported.

Where candidates lose it

The common loss is treating the case as a mystery about rates. The arithmetic takes one line; the interviewer wants to hear that the loss was predictable to the rupee from the limit report and that the failure was in governance, not in the model.

The second is blaming the yield rise. Rates rising 150 basis points is the event the limit existed for. Saying the market moved against the bank misses that Rs 105 crore of the loss came only from ignoring the limit.

What the interviewer asks next

  • How would you size a PV01 limit for a bank with a net worth of Rs 650 crore?
  • Why might a treasury add duration while yields are falling, and why is that dangerous?
  • What is the difference between a limit breach being approved and being ignored?
  • How would you present this loss to the board in three slides?

Asked at Schroders, Risk Management, New York, 2020 (Wall Street Oasis): reading 20-something page in 30 minutes about a loss case at a bank with 2 cases to choose from

← Case 095An optimiser sees two stocks with expected returns of 13% and 13.5%, both at 25% volatility, and a sample correlation of 0.95 from 36 months of data. Show how extreme the weights become, then shrink the correlation to 0.6.Case 097 →A pension scheme has liabilities of Rs 1,200 crore with a duration of 14 and assets of Rs 1,000 crore with a duration of 5. What happens to the deficit if rates fall 100 basis points, and how much DV01 must be added to hedge half the liability rate risk?

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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