Case 097Fixed income, credit and LDIHard
A pension scheme has liabilities of Rs 1,200 crore with a duration of 14 and assets of Rs 1,000 crore with a duration of 5. What happens to the deficit if rates fall 100 basis points, and how much DV01 must be added to hedge half the liability rate risk?
1The situation
Dibru Tea Estates Staff Pension Scheme pays defined pensions to retired estate staff. Its actuary values the liabilities at Rs 1,200 crore by discounting the promised payments at bond yields; the payments stretch decades ahead, so the liabilities have a duration of 14.
The assets are Rs 1,000 crore: about Rs 500 crore in equity funds and the rest in bonds with a duration of about 10, so the asset portfolio has an overall rate duration of about 5. The deficit is Rs 200 crore and the funding ratio 83.3%. The trustees ask what a fall in rates would do and how to reduce the exposure.
2Your task
Work out the deficit after a 100 basis point fall, express the mismatch in DV01, size a hedge of half the liability rate risk, and say how you would implement it.
Quick check
Rates fall 100 basis points. Roughly what happens to the Rs 200 crore deficit?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
A 100 basis point fall widens the deficit from Rs 200 crore to about Rs 318 crore, because liabilities gain Rs 168 crore and assets only Rs 50 crore. In DV01 terms liabilities move Rs 1.68 crore per basis point and assets Rs 0.50 crore, a 30% hedge. Hedging half the liability risk means asset DV01 of Rs 0.84 crore, so add Rs 0.34 crore per basis point, about Rs 283 crore of long gilts or a receive-fixed swap of about Rs 486 crore notional.
Step 1Why does a fall in rates hurt a scheme that owns bonds?
Think of saving for a child's college fees fixed in rupees ten years out. If the interest you can earn falls, you need more money today to reach the same sum, even though your existing deposits are worth a little more. A pension promise behaves like a very long bond the scheme has sold, so when rates fall its value rises by duration times the move: 14% of Rs 1,200 crore, Rs 168 crore. The assets also rise, but only 5% of Rs 1,000 crore, Rs 50 crore. The deficit widens to Rs 318 crore and the funding ratio falls from 83.3% to 76.8%.
| Rs crore | Today | Rates down 100 bp | Change |
|---|---|---|---|
| Liabilities (duration 14) | 1,200 | 1,368 | +168 |
| Assets (duration 5) | 1,000 | 1,050 | +50 |
| Deficit | 200 | 318 | +118 |
| Funding ratio | 83.3% | 76.8% | -6.6 pts |
Step 2How do you measure the mismatch in one number?
Use DV01, the rupee change for one basis point, on each side. Liabilities move Rs 1.68 crore per basis point and assets Rs 0.50 crore, so the deficit widens by Rs 1.18 crore for every basis point rates fall. The ratio of the two, 30%, is the hedge ratio: the share of the liability rate risk the assets already offset. Notice that the rupee gap matters, not the duration gap alone, because the assets are smaller than the liabilities; even assets with a duration of 14 would only hedge 83% of the risk.
| P | present value, Rs crore |
| D | duration |
| 0.0001 | one basis point |
| hedge ratio | asset DV01 divided by liability DV01 |
Step 3How much must be added, and with what?
Half the liability rate risk is Rs 0.84 crore per basis point. The assets already provide Rs 0.50 crore, so the hedge needs only another Rs 0.34 crore per basis point, not Rs 0.84 crore. Counting the existing bonds is where many candidates over-hedge. Two ways to add it: switch about Rs 283 crore from equity into long government bonds with a modified duration near 12, or keep the equity and enter a receive-fixed interest rate swap of about Rs 486 crore notional at a duration near 7. The switch reduces expected return because it sells growth assets; the swap keeps the equity but brings collateral calls and counterparty limits, and whether a scheme like this may use derivatives at all depends on its trust deed and the current rules for such schemes, which must be confirmed.
Step 4What does the hedge give up?
A hedge works in both directions. If rates rise 100 basis points, the unhedged deficit would narrow to Rs 82 crore, but the hedged one only to Rs 116 crore. So the trustees are not buying protection for free; they are choosing to stop betting on rates. That is usually right for a scheme whose sponsor cannot easily fund a sudden deficit, and it is why hedge ratios are raised in steps, often when funding improves. Say the limits: duration is a straight-line approximation that understates a 100 basis point move on a duration-14 liability, the discount rate the actuary uses may not be the gilt yield the hedge tracks, and inflation-linked pensions need a separate hedge.
Where candidates lose it
The common loss is saying the deficit is safe because both assets and liabilities rise when rates fall. Both rise, but by Rs 168 crore against Rs 50 crore; the rupee DV01 gap, not the direction, decides the deficit.
The second is sizing the hedge as half the liability DV01 on top of the existing bonds. The bonds already hedge Rs 0.50 crore per basis point, so the overlay needs only Rs 0.34 crore; adding Rs 0.84 crore over-hedges to 80%.
What the interviewer asks next
- Why can assets with the same duration as the liabilities still leave the scheme under-hedged?
- When would you raise the hedge ratio from 50% to 80%?
- How does the choice of discount rate for the liabilities change the hedge?
- What collateral would a receive-fixed swap of this size need in a 100 basis point rise?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
