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097

Case 097Fixed income, credit and LDIHard

A pension scheme has liabilities of Rs 1,200 crore with a duration of 14 and assets of Rs 1,000 crore with a duration of 5. What happens to the deficit if rates fall 100 basis points, and how much DV01 must be added to hedge half the liability rate risk?

1The situation

Dibru Tea Estates Staff Pension Scheme pays defined pensions to retired estate staff. Its actuary values the liabilities at Rs 1,200 crore by discounting the promised payments at bond yields; the payments stretch decades ahead, so the liabilities have a duration of 14.

The assets are Rs 1,000 crore: about Rs 500 crore in equity funds and the rest in bonds with a duration of about 10, so the asset portfolio has an overall rate duration of about 5. The deficit is Rs 200 crore and the funding ratio 83.3%. The trustees ask what a fall in rates would do and how to reduce the exposure.

2Your task

Work out the deficit after a 100 basis point fall, express the mismatch in DV01, size a hedge of half the liability rate risk, and say how you would implement it.

Quick check

Rates fall 100 basis points. Roughly what happens to the Rs 200 crore deficit?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

A 100 basis point fall widens the deficit from Rs 200 crore to about Rs 318 crore, because liabilities gain Rs 168 crore and assets only Rs 50 crore. In DV01 terms liabilities move Rs 1.68 crore per basis point and assets Rs 0.50 crore, a 30% hedge. Hedging half the liability risk means asset DV01 of Rs 0.84 crore, so add Rs 0.34 crore per basis point, about Rs 283 crore of long gilts or a receive-fixed swap of about Rs 486 crore notional.

Step 1Why does a fall in rates hurt a scheme that owns bonds?

Think of saving for a child's college fees fixed in rupees ten years out. If the interest you can earn falls, you need more money today to reach the same sum, even though your existing deposits are worth a little more. A pension promise behaves like a very long bond the scheme has sold, so when rates fall its value rises by duration times the move: 14% of Rs 1,200 crore, Rs 168 crore. The assets also rise, but only 5% of Rs 1,000 crore, Rs 50 crore. The deficit widens to Rs 318 crore and the funding ratio falls from 83.3% to 76.8%.

Rs croreTodayRates down 100 bpChange
Liabilities (duration 14)1,2001,368+168
Assets (duration 5)1,0001,050+50
Deficit200318+118
Funding ratio83.3%76.8%-6.6 pts
A 100 basis point fall in rates lifts Dibru's liabilities by Rs 168 crore and its assets by Rs 50 crore, so the deficit widens from Rs 200 crore to Rs 318 crore even though every asset gained.
Step 2How do you measure the mismatch in one number?

Use DV01, the rupee change for one basis point, on each side. Liabilities move Rs 1.68 crore per basis point and assets Rs 0.50 crore, so the deficit widens by Rs 1.18 crore for every basis point rates fall. The ratio of the two, 30%, is the hedge ratio: the share of the liability rate risk the assets already offset. Notice that the rupee gap matters, not the duration gap alone, because the assets are smaller than the liabilities; even assets with a duration of 14 would only hedge 83% of the risk.

The relationship
DV01=P×D×0.0001:1,200×14×0.0001=1.68,1,000×5×0.0001=0.50\text{DV01} = P \times D \times 0.0001: \quad 1{,}200 \times 14 \times 0.0001 = 1.68, \qquad 1{,}000 \times 5 \times 0.0001 = 0.50
Ppresent value, Rs crore
Dduration
0.0001one basis point
hedge ratioasset DV01 divided by liability DV01
What it says in wordsThe liabilities gain Rs 1.68 crore and the assets Rs 0.50 crore for each basis point rates fall, so the scheme is 30% hedged and loses Rs 1.18 crore of funding per basis point.
The funding gap is also a duration gap0.51.01.5DV01, Rs crore per basis point1.68LiabilitiesRs 1,200 cr, duration 140.50gap 1.18Assets todayhedge ratio 30%+0.340.84liability DV0150% hedgeAssets after hedgehedge ratio 50%
Dibru's liabilities carry Rs 1.68 crore of DV01 against Rs 0.50 crore for its assets, a 30% hedge ratio; adding Rs 0.34 crore per basis point lifts the assets to half the liability figure.
Step 3How much must be added, and with what?

Half the liability rate risk is Rs 0.84 crore per basis point. The assets already provide Rs 0.50 crore, so the hedge needs only another Rs 0.34 crore per basis point, not Rs 0.84 crore. Counting the existing bonds is where many candidates over-hedge. Two ways to add it: switch about Rs 283 crore from equity into long government bonds with a modified duration near 12, or keep the equity and enter a receive-fixed interest rate swap of about Rs 486 crore notional at a duration near 7. The switch reduces expected return because it sells growth assets; the swap keeps the equity but brings collateral calls and counterparty limits, and whether a scheme like this may use derivatives at all depends on its trust deed and the current rules for such schemes, which must be confirmed.

Hedging half the rate risk flattens the deficit line both ways100200300rates fall 100 bpno changerates rise 100 bpDeficit, Rs croreunhedged: 31850% hedged: 284today 20082116the hedge gives up some ofthe gain if rates rise
With a 50% hedge, a 100 basis point fall widens Dibru's deficit to Rs 284 crore instead of Rs 318 crore, while a 100 basis point rise narrows it only to Rs 116 crore instead of Rs 82 crore.
Step 4What does the hedge give up?

A hedge works in both directions. If rates rise 100 basis points, the unhedged deficit would narrow to Rs 82 crore, but the hedged one only to Rs 116 crore. So the trustees are not buying protection for free; they are choosing to stop betting on rates. That is usually right for a scheme whose sponsor cannot easily fund a sudden deficit, and it is why hedge ratios are raised in steps, often when funding improves. Say the limits: duration is a straight-line approximation that understates a 100 basis point move on a duration-14 liability, the discount rate the actuary uses may not be the gilt yield the hedge tracks, and inflation-linked pensions need a separate hedge.

Where candidates lose it

The common loss is saying the deficit is safe because both assets and liabilities rise when rates fall. Both rise, but by Rs 168 crore against Rs 50 crore; the rupee DV01 gap, not the direction, decides the deficit.

The second is sizing the hedge as half the liability DV01 on top of the existing bonds. The bonds already hedge Rs 0.50 crore per basis point, so the overlay needs only Rs 0.34 crore; adding Rs 0.84 crore over-hedges to 80%.

What the interviewer asks next

  • Why can assets with the same duration as the liabilities still leave the scheme under-hedged?
  • When would you raise the hedge ratio from 50% to 80%?
  • How does the choice of discount rate for the liabilities change the hedge?
  • What collateral would a receive-fixed swap of this size need in a 100 basis point rise?
← Case 096A bank treasury held Rs 1,500 crore of government bonds with a modified duration of 8 and lost about Rs 180 crore when yields rose 150 basis points. Its PV01 limit was Rs 50 lakh against an actual Rs 1.2 crore. Work out the loss and explain what failed.Case 098 →A Rs 400 crore solar project company has 70% bank debt. The sponsor can put in its Rs 120 crore as equity or as a shareholder loan at 12%, with tax at 25%. Compare the sponsor's return and cash timing, and say why shareholder loans are used and what limits apply.

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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