Portfolio Management interview preparation
Asset allocation, factor models, risk, attribution and implementation, on global and Indian portfolios. Every question is either traced to a named firm from a public candidate report, or tagged at desk level when we could not trace it, and answers lead with the point, then the mechanism, then the limitation.
100 questions, mapped to the firms that asked them
- Questions
- 100
- Traced to a firm
- 40
- Firms
- 24
- Updated
- September 2026
020What risk and return targets would you set for an institutional investor?MSCIRisk Management · Remote · 2013
Say this
Derive them, do not pick them. The return target comes from what the institution has to fund, in real terms. The risk target is the largest loss that does not break the institution, expressed as drawdown and funded status rather than volatility alone.
Then walk it
- Start with the required return. A pension needs the discount rate on its liabilities plus whatever deficit repair is needed; an endowment needs its spending rate plus inflation plus costs, so a 4.5 percent spend plus 3 percent inflation plus 0.5 percent costs implies about 8 percent nominal.
- Then test whether that is achievable from the capital market assumptions. If the required return is 8 percent and your assumptions give 6.5 percent for a portfolio at the risk limit, the honest output is that the spending rule or the contribution rate must change. Saying that is the professional answer.
- Then the risk side, in the institution's own units: probability of the funding ratio falling below 90 percent, maximum acceptable drawdown, shortfall risk against the liability, and a liquidity floor for benefit payments or capital calls.
- Express the active risk separately. Total portfolio volatility of perhaps 9 to 11 percent for a typical balanced institution, with a tracking error budget against the policy benchmark of maybe 1 to 2 percent, allocated between tactical tilts and manager risk.
- Then set the horizon and the measurement convention. Targets over rolling five years, not calendar quarters, otherwise the governance process will force short-termism no matter what the document says.
- And a completeness check: are the targets internally consistent? A 9 percent return target with a 10 percent maximum drawdown limit is not a mandate, it is a contradiction, and the job is to say so before the money is invested.
Where candidates lose it
Naming numbers with no derivation, '8 percent return, 12 percent volatility'. The interviewer wants to see the target come from the liability and the risk limit come from what the institution can survive. And if the required return is not achievable, say so rather than quietly raising the risk to make the arithmetic work.
Expect next
- What if the required return is not achievable at that risk level?
- How would you express risk to a trustee who does not know what volatility means?
- How would you split the tracking error budget?
Reported by candidates at MSCI (Risk Management, Remote, 2013). Source: Wall Street Oasis.
036What is the difference between ex-ante and ex-post tracking error, and why do they diverge?MSCIFinancial Tools · Monterrey · 2013
Say this
Ex-post is the realised standard deviation of active returns, computed from the return series. Ex-ante is a forecast from a risk model applied to today's holdings. They diverge because the model uses stale covariances, because the portfolio changed during the measurement window, and because realised risk includes events the model did not have.
Then walk it
- Ex-post is simple arithmetic: take portfolio return minus benchmark return each period, take the standard deviation, annualise by multiplying by the square root of the number of periods per year. It describes history and it needs 36 or more observations to mean much.
- Ex-ante takes the current active weight vector and computes the square root of w transpose sigma w using a factor risk model. It describes today's portfolio and it updates daily, which is why risk systems report it.
- Divergence reason one, the covariance matrix. Risk models estimate it over a long window, sometimes with exponential weighting, so they lag regime changes. Going into February 2020, ex-ante tracking error was low everywhere and realised tracking error exploded.
- Reason two, the portfolio moved. Ex-post over three years reflects every portfolio you held during those three years, including a different style and different sizes. Ex-ante is a snapshot.
- Reason three, model incompleteness. If your active risk comes from an exposure the model does not have a factor for, say a specific commodity input or a single regulatory event, ex-ante will report it as small specific risk while realised outcomes show it was the dominant bet.
- So I would use them for different jobs. Ex-ante to manage the portfolio and to police the tracking error budget in advance, ex-post to evaluate what actually happened, and I would watch the ratio between them as a model diagnostic. Persistently realising 6 percent while forecasting 3 means the risk model is missing the real bet.
Where candidates lose it
Giving one formula and treating the two as interchangeable. The point of the question is that a risk system's number and the performance report's number will not match, and a portfolio manager has to be able to explain why to a client. Also get the annualisation right: multiply by the square root of the frequency, do not divide.
Expect next
- Which one would you put in a client report?
- What does it mean if realised is persistently double the forecast?
- How many observations do you need for ex-post to be meaningful?
Reported by candidates at MSCI (Financial Tools, Monterrey, 2013). Source: Wall Street Oasis.
Firm tags come from public, anonymous candidate reports on Wall Street Oasis: strong signal, not sworn testimony. Firms are named as the places a question was reported, not as partners of Fin Maverick. Answers are written for this page to show how to think out loud; they are not scripts to recite.

