Portfolio Management interview preparation

Questions

100

Traced to a firm

40

Firms

24

Updated

September 2026

Asked at

All firmsBLBlackRock4Vanguard4WMWellington Management4Amundi3ACAQR Capital Management3Neuberger Berman3SCSchroders3Man Group2MSCI2Northern Trust2AllianceBernstein1Apollo Global Management1Blackstone1BMBNY Mellon1Carlyle Group1Fidelity Investments1Goldman Sachs1Invesco1Millennium Management1MSMorgan Stanley1NUNuveen1PIMCO1SSState Street1TPTPG1

Topic

All topicsPortfolio theory5Factor models8Asset allocation11Rebalancing3Portfolio construction7Benchmarks and tracking error5Performance measurement8Risk management6Fixed income and LDI5Currency and global3Implementation and costs5Active versus passive6India markets7Brainteasers5Career and fit16

Level

AnyCoreIntermediateHard

Type

AnyTechnicalCaseMarket viewFitBrainteaser

1. 073How is the Nifty 50 constructed, and how does it differ from the Sensex?India marketsIntermediatetechnicalIndian asset managementIndian equity research

   Say this

   Both are free-float market capitalisation weighted indices of large Indian companies, but the Nifty holds 50 names across sectors on the NSE while the Sensex holds 30 on the BSE. The Nifty is the reference for almost all Indian derivatives and index products, so it is the one that matters for portfolio construction.

   Then walk it

   1. Free float weighting means only shares available to the public count, so promoter and government holdings are excluded. That is why a company with a 75 percent promoter stake has a much smaller index weight than its full market cap implies, and it is a large effect in India.
   2. Selection: Nifty 50 names are chosen from the Nifty 100 universe on free-float market cap and liquidity, measured by average impact cost at a defined order size, with a requirement to be available in the derivatives segment. Rebalancing is semi-annual with announced cut-offs.
   3. Concentration is the practical issue. The top five to ten names, typically HDFC Bank, Reliance, ICICI Bank, Infosys and TCS, can make up 40 percent or more of the index, and financials alone are around a third. So an Indian large cap index fund is substantially a bet on private sector banks.
   4. The Sensex, with 30 names, is even more concentrated, so it is more volatile and more sensitive to a single stock. The two track each other closely, correlation well above 0.98, so the choice is about liquidity and product availability rather than exposure.
   5. Index events matter for implementation. Inclusion and exclusion force index funds to trade on the same day, which creates predictable impact, and a stock's addition to the Nifty has historically produced a run-up before the effective date. A manager benchmarked to the index has to decide whether to trade with the crowd or around it.
   6. The broader family matters for mandate design: Nifty Next 50, Midcap 150, Smallcap 250 and the 500. Since SEBI's categorisation rules define cap buckets by ranking, those indices are the reference points an Indian fund's mandate is actually written against.

   Where candidates lose it

   Describing them as price-weighted or full market cap weighted. Both are free-float weighted, and the free-float adjustment is especially important in India because of high promoter holdings. Also be able to say roughly how concentrated the Nifty is; a candidate who does not know financials are about a third of it has not looked at the index they claim to follow.

   Expect next

   • What does free float weighting do to a promoter-heavy company's weight?
   • How concentrated is the Nifty, sector by sector?
   • How would you trade a Nifty index inclusion?
2. 074Explain SEBI's large, mid and small cap categorisation and what it did to how Indian funds are built.India marketsIntermediatetechnicalIndian asset managementMutual funds

   Say this

   SEBI defines the buckets by rank, not by an absolute rupee figure: the top 100 companies by full market capitalisation are large cap, 101 to 250 are mid cap, and 251 onwards are small cap. Funds in each category must hold at least 65 or 80 percent in their own bucket, which removed the ability to drift.

   Then walk it

   1. The 2017 rationalisation did two things: it standardised the definitions using an AMFI-published list updated twice a year, and it forced each scheme into one clearly defined category with minimum allocations. A large cap fund must hold at least 80 percent in the top 100, a mid cap fund at least 65 percent in 101 to 250.
   2. The point was comparability and honesty in labelling. Before this, a 'large cap' fund could hold a third in mid caps, outperform in a mid cap rally, and be sold on a peer comparison that was not like for like.
   3. The consequence for construction is that style drift is no longer available as an alpha source. A large cap manager now competes in a 100-stock universe against an index whose top ten names are 55 percent of it, which is why so few large cap funds beat the Nifty and why flows moved to index funds in that category.
   4. It created flexi cap and multi cap as separate answers to the same problem. Multi cap requires at least 25 percent in each of the three buckets, which forces small cap exposure regardless of valuation. Flexi cap leaves the manager free. When SEBI introduced the multi cap rule in 2020 it forced real buying in small caps, which is a good example of regulation moving prices.
   5. Rank-based definitions also mean the boundary moves. A company can become a large cap without doing anything, simply because the market rose, and the semi-annual reclassification forces funds to trade. That is a predictable flow event worth knowing about.
   6. And it interacts with capacity, which is the live issue: small cap funds have taken enormous inflows against a universe with limited liquidity, which is why SEBI has pushed AMCs to stress test small and mid cap schemes and several have restricted lump sum inflows. That is a capacity constraint enforced by the regulator rather than by the manager.

   Where candidates lose it

   Giving rupee thresholds rather than the rank-based definition. The top 100 by full market cap is the rule, and the list comes from AMFI twice a year. The insight interviewers want is what the rule did to behaviour: no more style drift, large cap active management squeezed, and forced small cap buying under the multi cap rules.

   Expect next

   • What is the difference between multi cap and flexi cap?
   • Why do so few Indian large cap funds beat the Nifty now?
   • What are the capacity issues in small cap funds?
3. 075What is a PMS, and how does it differ from a mutual fund and an AIF?India marketsCorephone / first roundIndian asset managementIndian wealth management

   Say this

   A PMS runs a separate account in the client's own name with a 50 lakh rupee minimum, so the client owns the securities directly and is taxed on each transaction. A mutual fund is a pooled vehicle taxed at the investor's exit. An AIF is a pooled private fund with a one crore minimum and far wider freedom on strategy and leverage.

   Then walk it

   1. PMS: discretionary or non-discretionary, minimum 50 lakh, securities held in the client's own demat account. Because there is no pooling, every trade the manager makes creates a taxable event for that client, and performance is reported net of the fees that client actually paid.
   2. Mutual fund: pooled, heavily regulated on concentration, liquidity and disclosure, daily NAV, minimum investment of a few hundred rupees, and no tax at the fund level, so gains are only taxed when the investor redeems. That deferral is a real, quantifiable advantage over a PMS for a high-turnover strategy.
   3. AIF: three categories. Category I for venture and infrastructure, Category II for private equity and private credit, which is the largest, and Category III for hedge-fund-like strategies including long-short and leverage. Minimum one crore, taxation depends on category and structure, and Category III has been the fastest growing.
   4. The construction freedom runs the other way to the regulation. A mutual fund has tight single-issuer and single-stock limits. A PMS can run 15 concentrated positions. A Category III AIF can be long-short and levered. So concentration and leverage rise as the investor's ticket size rises.
   5. Fee models differ too: mutual funds have a capped total expense ratio and no performance fee, PMS commonly charges a fixed fee plus a performance fee over a hurdle with a catch-up, and AIFs use private-fund style fees with carry.
   6. The practical comparison I would make to a client is after-tax and after-fee. A PMS with a 20 percent performance fee and full annual taxation of realised gains needs to beat a mutual fund by a significant margin before the client is better off, and the sales pitch rarely presents it that way.

   Where candidates lose it

   Describing PMS as just 'a mutual fund for rich people'. The two structural differences that matter are direct ownership, which changes the tax treatment completely, and the freedom to concentrate. And be ready with the after-tax comparison, because that is the question a real client asks and most candidates have never done the arithmetic.

   Expect next

   • Why does the tax treatment favour a mutual fund for high turnover?
   • What can a Category III AIF do that a mutual fund cannot?
   • Which would you recommend to a client with five crore?
4. 076How do the NPS allocation rules work, and what do they imply for a subscriber's glide path?India marketsIntermediatetechnicalIndian asset managementRetirement and pensions

   Say this

   NPS offers active choice, where the subscriber sets weights within caps, and auto choice, where a lifecycle fund de-risks with age. Equity is capped at 75 percent under active choice, and the auto choice glide paths step equity down every year from age 35, which is a regulated glide path rather than a market view.

   Then walk it

   1. The building blocks are four asset classes: E for equity, C for corporate bonds, G for government securities, and A for alternatives, which is capped at 5 percent. Under active choice the subscriber picks the mix with equity capped at 75 percent.
   2. Auto choice gives three lifecycle funds. Aggressive starts at 75 percent equity, moderate at 50 percent, conservative at 25 percent, and each tapers equity down annually from age 35 until it reaches a floor, with the balance moving into corporate and government bonds.
   3. The design logic is sequence risk. The subscriber's pot is largest just before retirement, so a late drawdown is the most damaging event, and a mechanical glide path removes the need for the subscriber to make a good decision at a bad moment.
   4. The criticisms are worth having a view on. The glide path is age-based rather than funding-based, so it de-risks a subscriber who is badly underfunded and needs the growth. And the equity cap of 75 percent is low for a 25-year-old with a forty year horizon by any standard asset allocation reasoning.
   5. The structural features that matter more than the allocation for the final outcome: the fund management charge is extremely low, single digit basis points, so the cost drag that destroys most retirement outcomes is absent, and contributions get tax deduction under 80CCD including the additional 50,000 rupees.
   6. The constraint at the other end is the annuity requirement, currently at least 40 percent of the corpus must buy an annuity, and Indian annuity rates are unattractive. So a sensible plan treats NPS as one sleeve, uses it for the tax deduction and the low cost, and builds the flexible part of retirement savings in equity funds outside it. That whole-balance-sheet framing is the portfolio answer rather than the product answer.

   Where candidates lose it

   Listing the asset classes without engaging with the glide path or the annuity requirement. The portfolio insight is that the glide path is age-based rather than funding-based, and that the compulsory annuity at the end is a binding constraint on the whole plan. A candidate who cannot name the 75 percent equity cap does not know the product.

   Expect next

   • Is a 75 percent equity cap right for a 25-year-old?
   • What is wrong with an age-based glide path?
   • How would you plan around the annuity requirement?
5. 077How does EPFO invest, and what does its equity mandate do to Indian markets?India marketsHardsuperdayIndian asset managementRetirement and pensions

   Say this

   EPFO is overwhelmingly a fixed income investor with a permitted equity allocation of 5 to 15 percent of incremental flows, executed almost entirely through Nifty 50 and Sensex ETFs. That makes it the single largest domestic buyer of passive Indian equity and a structural, price-insensitive bid on the largest index names.

   Then walk it

   1. The pattern of investment is set by a government-notified pattern: the bulk into government securities and high-rated debt, a permitted band of 5 to 15 percent of incremental inflows into equity, and equity access only via index ETFs rather than active mandates.
   2. Two consequences follow from the ETF-only rule. First, the flow goes into the top 50 names in proportion to free-float weight, so it amplifies existing index concentration. Second, it is completely price-insensitive; the allocation is a percentage of contributions, so it buys the same way at 25 times earnings as at 15.
   3. Scale matters. Incremental annual flows into EPFO run into lakhs of crores, so even a mid-single-digit equity percentage is a very large, steady, monthly bid on index names. Combined with SIP flows it is the core of the domestic institutional buying that has repeatedly absorbed foreign selling since 2020.
   4. That changes the market's behaviour. Persistent, insensitive domestic buying raises the floor under large cap valuations and reduces the market's dependence on FII flows, which historically drove Indian drawdowns. It also means passive index names can stay expensive relative to the rest of the market for long periods.
   5. The governance issues are real and worth naming: the declared EPF interest rate is set administratively and does not track the portfolio's mark-to-market return, equity gains are realised opportunistically to support the rate, and members bear no visible link between their return and the portfolio.
   6. For a portfolio manager the practical implication is flow analysis. If you can estimate EPFO and SIP monthly buying and compare it to FII positioning, you have a meaningful picture of marginal demand for Indian large caps, and that is a more useful input for Indian markets than it would be in the US.

   Where candidates lose it

   Vaguely saying EPFO has 'started investing in equities'. The specifics carry the answer: 5 to 15 percent of incremental flows, ETFs only, therefore concentrated in the Nifty and Sensex and price-insensitive. Then draw the market conclusion about domestic flows offsetting foreign selling, because that is the portfolio-relevant part.

   Expect next

   • How does that interact with SIP flows?
   • What does price-insensitive buying do to large cap valuations?
   • Should EPFO use active managers?
6. 078What are SIP flows doing to Indian equity valuations?India marketsIntermediatetechnicalIndian asset managementMutual funds

   Say this

   They have created a large, monthly, largely price-insensitive domestic bid that has structurally raised valuations, particularly in mid and small caps where the flow is enormous relative to free float. The open question is not whether it supports prices but how it behaves in the first genuine drawdown.

   Then walk it

   1. The mechanism: monthly systematic investment plans now run at well over 20,000 crore rupees a month, and that money has to be deployed roughly on arrival. Managers hold modest cash, so a fund receiving inflows is a forced buyer at whatever the market price is.
   2. Where it binds hardest is small and mid caps. A small cap fund receiving 500 crore a month in a universe where the median name trades a few crore a day has to buy price-insensitively, which is why small cap premiums to large caps reached historically extreme levels and why SEBI required stress testing and some AMCs restricted lump sum inflows.
   3. The valuation consequence is a mechanical one, not a story about earnings. Persistent inelastic demand against limited free float raises the price until either supply appears, which it has through record IPO and promoter and private equity selling, or demand slows.
   4. The stabilising feature is real, though. SIP investors have been much stickier than lump sum investors: flows kept rising through the 2020 crash and through 2022, which meaningfully reduced India's historical dependence on foreign flows and dampened drawdowns.
   5. The untested question is behaviour in a long sideways or falling market. SIP behaviour has been observed mostly in a rising market since 2014, with only short drawdowns. A three-year flat market with negative small cap returns would be the real test, and stoppage ratios are the metric to watch.
   6. For portfolio construction the implications are concrete: be sceptical of small cap valuations supported by flow rather than by earnings, treat liquidity and capacity as a first-order constraint in Indian small caps, and monitor monthly flow and stoppage data as a genuine input rather than a curiosity.

   Where candidates lose it

   Treating SIP flows purely as a bullish structural story. The interviewer wants the mechanical valuation effect, the small cap capacity problem, and honesty that stickiness has not yet been tested in a long drawdown. Quote an approximate monthly flow number; a candidate who cannot is not following the market they want to invest in.

   Expect next

   • What is the stoppage ratio and where is it now?
   • Why did SEBI ask for small cap stress tests?
   • How would you position if SIP flows halved?
7. 079How would you build a portfolio for an Indian high net worth client across equity, debt, gold and real estate?India marketsIntermediatecase studyIndian wealth managementIndian asset management

   Say this

   Start by netting off what they already own, because Indian HNI balance sheets are usually dominated by their business and by property, so the liquid portfolio's job is to diversify away from those, not to duplicate them. Then build the financial portfolio around goals, tax wrappers and liquidity.

   Then walk it

   1. First the existing exposure. A typical client has a concentrated business stake, two or three properties and a large insurance-linked savings product. Adding Indian mid caps to that is adding the same domestic cyclical risk. So the honest starting advice is often diversification out of India and out of illiquid assets.
   2. Then the liquid core: broad Indian equity through index funds and a small number of flexi cap managers, with a real allocation to global equity, which most Indian portfolios lack entirely. The LRS route allows 250,000 dollars per person per year, and international funds are the alternative where that is impractical.
   3. Debt sleeve sized for the goals plus two years of spending. At current yields, a mix of government securities and high-grade corporate bonds plus target maturity funds gives a predictable return, and the tax change that removed indexation on debt funds means holding period and structure now matter more than they used to.
   4. Gold, 5 to 10 percent, as rupee and crisis insurance. It has a genuine role for an Indian investor because a global risk-off event usually weakens the rupee, so gold in rupee terms does two jobs at once. Sovereign gold bonds were the efficient instrument while available; ETFs otherwise.
   5. Real estate: treat what they already own as the allocation and resist adding more. It is illiquid, lumpy, hard to value, tax inefficient on exit and highly correlated with their local economy. If they want more property exposure, REITs and InvITs give it with liquidity and transparency.
   6. Then structure and governance: use the tax wrappers correctly, consider whether PMS or AIF is justified after fees and tax, plan succession because Indian family wealth is very often held informally, and write down a rebalancing rule. And keep two to three years of expenses liquid, because the biggest destroyer of an HNI plan is having to sell a business stake or a property in a hurry.

   Where candidates lose it

   Producing a generic 60/30/10 split without looking at the concentrated business and property exposure that dominates most Indian HNI wealth. The single best answer here starts with the total balance sheet. Also, recommending more real estate to a client already heavy in property shows you are selling products rather than managing risk.

   Expect next

   • How much international exposure and how would you get it?
   • Would you use a PMS for this client?
   • How do you handle a concentrated stake in their own unlisted business?

Firm tags come from public, anonymous candidate reports on Wall Street Oasis: strong signal, not sworn testimony. Firms are named as the places a question was reported, not as partners of Fin Maverick. Answers are written for this page to show how to think out loud; they are not scripts to recite.