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060

Case 060Project and real asset financeCore

A port company has a Rs 1,200 crore bullet loan at 8.5% maturing in two years and operating cash flow of Rs 180 crore. If refinancing costs 11%, what happens to its interest burden and cover, and what should the lender require now?

1The situation

Pelagor Ports operates a container terminal. Its only debt is a Rs 1,200 crore bullet loan at a fixed 8.5%, all due in one payment in two years. Operating cash flow, after maintenance capex and tax, is steady at about Rs 180 crore a year. Pelagor pays out whatever is left after interest as dividends to its sponsor.

Rates have risen since the loan was signed. The bank's own view is that refinancing a loan of this kind today would cost about 11%.

2Your task

Compute the interest burden and cover before and after refinancing at 11%, and set out what the lender should require from Pelagor now, two years before maturity.

Quick check

What happens to interest cover if the whole loan is refinanced at 11%?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

Refinancing at 11% lifts interest from Rs 102 crore to Rs 132 crore and cuts cover from 1.76x to 1.36x. The bigger risk is not the rate but the date: Rs 1,200 crore is due on one day, more than six years of cash flow. The lender should require a refinancing plan now, a cash sweep instead of dividends, which would cut the loan to Rs 1044 crore and hold cover near 1.57x, and a hedge on the new rate.

Step 1What does refinancing at 11% do to the numbers?

Interest today is 8.5% of Rs 1,200 crore, Rs 102 crore, covered 1.76x by Rs 180 crore of cash flow. At 11% the same loan costs Rs 132 crore a year, and cover falls to 1.36x, so a 20% drop in port volumes would leave Pelagor barely covering its interest. Nothing about the port has changed; the cost of its money has.

Step 2Why is a bullet loan riskier than its cover ratio suggests?

A family that owes nothing on its house until one balloon payment in two years is fine every month until the day it is not. A bullet loan concentrates the whole repayment risk on one date: on that day Pelagor must find Rs 1,200 crore, about 6.7 years of its entire operating cash flow, from new lenders at whatever the market charges. If markets are shut that month, or the port has had a bad quarter, cover ratios are irrelevant; the company defaults because it cannot roll the loan. Lenders call this refinancing riskThe risk that a borrower cannot replace maturing debt, or can only do so at a much higher cost., and it is the main risk in this file.

Pelagor's interest by year: the whole risk sits on one date102Year 1102Year 2132115Year 3132115Year 4132115Year 5Bullet: Rs 1,200 croredue end of year 2Cover (operating cash flow 180 / interest): 1.76x at 8.5%1.36x refinanced in full at 11%1.57x if Rs 156 crore is repaid from spare cash firstrefinance all 1,200after sweep
Pelagor pays Rs 102 crore of interest in each of the next two years, then must refinance the full Rs 1,200 crore; at 11% interest rises to Rs 132 crore and cover falls from 1.76x to 1.36x, or to Rs 115 crore and 1.57x if spare cash repays Rs 156 crore first.
Step 3What should the lender require now?

Use the two years. Stop the cash leaving: Pelagor has Rs 78 crore a year left after interest, and sweeping it to repay debt instead of paying dividends cuts the loan to Rs 1044 crore by maturity. Refinanced at 11%, that costs Rs 114.8 crore a year, cover 1.57x instead of 1.36x. Then ask for a refinancing plan with milestones, starting twelve to eighteen months before maturity, so a failed attempt leaves time for a second. Consider a forward-starting swap to lock the new rate, and a minimum cover covenant tested on the expected refinancing cost, not today's 8.5%, so trouble shows up while there is still time to act.

Rs croreToday at 8.5%Refinance all at 11%Sweep, then refinance at 11%
Debt1,2001,2001,044
Interest a year102132114.8
Operating cash flow180180180
Cover1.76x1.36x1.57x
Refinancing the full Rs 1,200 crore at 11% cuts cover to 1.36x; sweeping two years of spare cash first leaves Rs 1044 crore to refinance and holds cover at 1.57x.

Say what the sponsor will push back on. A cash sweep stops dividends for two years, and the sponsor will argue the port is sound. The lender's answer is that the port is sound and the capital structure is not: sound assets still default when a single maturity meets a closed market. A compromise is a partial sweep with an agreed amortisation schedule in the new loan, so the next maturity is not another cliff.

Where candidates lose it

Candidates compute the new cover, see 1.4x, call it fine and stop. The ratio is not the risk; the single maturity date is, because on that day the question is whether anyone will lend Rs 1,200 crore at all.

The other miss is waiting. Everything useful the lender can require, a sweep, a hedge, an early refinancing plan, only works if it starts two years out, not two months.

What the interviewer asks next

  • Refinancing markets are shut in the month the loan falls due. What are the lender's options?
  • Would you rather lend Pelagor a new bullet loan at 11% or an amortising loan at 11.5%?
  • How would a forward-starting swap change the risk, and what does it cost if rates fall?
← Case 059A bank discovers that a trader hid losses that grew from Rs 50 crore to Rs 900 crore over eighteen months using fictitious offsetting trades, while reporting steady profits. From the incident file, identify the control failures, show how the loss grew and present what should change.Case 061 →Using a one-year rating transition matrix, compute the two-year default probability of a grade B borrower and explain why it is more than twice the one-year figure.

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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