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061

Case 061Retail and portfolio creditHard

Using a one-year rating transition matrix, compute the two-year default probability of a grade B borrower and explain why it is more than twice the one-year figure.

1The situation

Kovidha Bank grades its small business borrowers A, B or C and estimates a one-year transition matrix from ten years of its own data. A borrower graded A stays A with 90% probability, moves to B with 8%, to C with 1.5% and defaults with 0.5%. A B borrower moves to A with 5%, stays B with 85%, falls to C with 7% and defaults with 3%. A C borrower moves up to B with 10%, stays C with 70% and defaults with 20%. Default is absorbing: once in default, a borrower stays there.

The bank is pricing a two-year loan to a borrower graded B today.

2Your task

What is the two-year default probability for the grade B borrower, and why is it more than twice the one-year figure?

Quick check

Before working it: what is the two-year PD of a grade B borrower?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

The two-year PD is about 6.97%, more than the 6% you get by doubling the one-year 3%. Add the four paths: 3% default in year one, then 5% x 0.5% via A, 85% x 3% via B and 7% x 20% via C. The path through C adds 1.4 points on its own because borrowers who survive year one are no longer all grade B; some have migrated to a grade that defaults far more often.

Step 1How do you set up the two-year calculation?

Think of students in a middle section of a class. After a year, most are still in the middle, a few have moved up, a few have slipped to the bottom section, and some have dropped out. The dropout rate in year two depends on where each student now sits, not where they started. A two-year default is the sum of every path that ends in default: default in year one, or move to a grade in year one and default from there in year two. This is what multiplying the transition matrixA table giving, for each rating grade, the probability of moving to every other grade, or to default, over one period. by itself does, but on paper the tree is quicker and shows where the risk comes from.

Grade B over two years: the path through C adds the extraGrade BtodayA: 5%x 0.5%= 0.025 ptsB: 85%x 3%= 2.550 ptsC: 7%x 20%= 1.400 ptsD: 3%= 3.000 ptsTwo-year PD6.975%vs 2 x 3% = 6%Only 7% of B borrowers fall to C, but at a 20% default ratethey add 1.40 points, against 0.21 if they had defaulted like B
A grade B borrower defaults within two years through four paths: 3.000 points directly, 0.025 via A, 2.550 by staying B and 1.400 via C, a total of 6.975%, of which the small path through C carries far more than its 7% share suggests.
The relationship
PD2=0.03+0.05(0.005)+0.85(0.03)+0.07(0.20)=0.06975PD_2 = 0.03 + 0.05(0.005) + 0.85(0.03) + 0.07(0.20) = 0.06975
0.03defaults in year one
0.05(0.005)moves to A, then defaults at A's rate
0.85(0.03)stays B, then defaults at B's rate
0.07(0.20)falls to C, then defaults at C's rate
What it says in wordsAdd every route into default, each weighted by the chance of taking it.
Step 2Why is it more than double the one-year figure?

If the borrower stayed a B, surviving year one at 97% and then defaulting at 3% gives 1 - 0.97 squared, about 5.9%, slightly less than double. It comes out higher because the survivors of year one are a riskier group than the borrowers who started: 7% of them now sit in grade C with a 20% default rate. Had those borrowers defaulted like B borrowers, the C path would add only 0.21 points instead of 1.40. The upgrades to A pull the other way, but only 5% move up and A's default rate is tiny, so the downgrade path wins. Given survival, the year-two default rate is about 4.1%, not 3%.

Cumulative PD for grade B: migration widens the gap every year5%10%15%20%3.0%3.0%year 17.0%5.9%year 211.4%8.7%year 316.0%11.5%year 420.5%14.1%year 5with migration (the matrix)constant 3% a year, no migration
With migration, a grade B borrower's cumulative default probability climbs to 7.0% at two years and 20.5% at five, against 5.9% and 14.1% if it defaulted at a constant 3% a year, so the gap grows with the horizon.
Step 3What does this change for pricing and provisioning?

Pricing a two-year loan off 2 x 3% understates expected loss by about a sixth; over five years the gap is 6.4 points. Any multi-year measure, from lifetime provisions to the tenor limits on a grade, should come from the matrix raised to the horizon, not the one-year PD scaled by time. Then say the limits. The calculation assumes the matrix is the same every year and that a borrower's history does not matter. In practice recently downgraded borrowers are more likely to be downgraded again, and in a recession the whole matrix shifts towards default, so a matrix averaged over ten years understates risk just when it matters. A stressed matrix is the natural follow-up.

Where candidates lose it

The fast answers are 6% (double it) or 5.9% (survive twice). Both assume the borrower keeps its grade, which ignores the one thing a transition matrix exists to capture.

The other loss is computing 6.975% correctly and then being unable to say why it is higher. Name the path through C and its 20% default rate; that sentence is what the interviewer is waiting for.

What the interviewer asks next

  • What is the two-year PD of a grade A borrower, and why is its ratio to the one-year PD even larger?
  • How would you build a stressed matrix for a recession year?
  • Why might the transition matrix not be the same in year two as in year one?
← Case 060A port company has a Rs 1,200 crore bullet loan at 8.5% maturing in two years and operating cash flow of Rs 180 crore. If refinancing costs 11%, what happens to its interest burden and cover, and what should the lender require now?Case 062 →An insurer holds a Rs 500 crore equity portfolio with a beta of 1.1 against solvency headroom of Rs 150 crore. Apply a 25% market fall, decide whether the headroom survives, and say what else the scenario should include.

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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