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Risk Management puzzles, solved step by step

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Showing 1–7 of 7 · filtered from 100Clear filters
  1. 008What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 3:15?Logic, estimation and brainteasersWarm upBank market riskRisk GCC

    Try it first

    Answer inside five seconds.

    Show the worked solution

    7.5 degrees. The minute hand at 15 minutes points straight at the 3, 90 degrees from 12. The hour hand moves 30 degrees an hour, so half a degree a minute; at 3:15 it sits at 90 plus 7.5, which is 97.5 degrees. The gap is 7.5 degrees, not zero.

    Why is zero the wrong answer?

    Picture a train that leaves at 3 o'clock and a car that starts after it. If you only check where the train was at 3 o'clock, you will think the car has caught up when it reaches that station. The hour hand never waits at a number; it moves half a degree every minute, so at a quarter past it has already moved a quarter of the way to the next number. Most people see the static clock face of a child's drawing, where the hour hand points exactly at the 3.

    At 3:15 the hour hand has already left the 3121234567891011Minute hand15 min x 6 degrees90.0 degHour hand3 x 30 + 15 x 0.5 degrees97.5 degGapthe hour hand's drift7.5 degThe hour hand moves 0.5 degrees a minute,so a quarter past means a quarter of 30 degrees.
    At 3:15 the minute hand points at the 3, 90 degrees from 12, while the hour hand has moved a quarter of the way towards the 4, to 97.5 degrees, leaving a 7.5 degree gap between them.
    The relationship
    θ=∣30H+0.5M−6M∣=∣90+7.5−90∣=7.5∘\theta = \left| 30H + 0.5M - 6M \right| = |90 + 7.5 - 90| = 7.5^{\circ}
    Hthe hour, here 3
    Mthe minutes past the hour, here 15
    30H + 0.5Mthe hour hand's angle from 12
    6Mthe minute hand's angle from 12
    What it says in wordsWork out each hand's angle from 12, then take the difference.

    Why would a risk interviewer ask a clock question?

    Because it tests one habit that matters on a risk desk. The question is designed so that the static picture gives a confident wrong answer, and the interviewer is watching whether you check what moves. A risk number is full of the same trap: a position that looks hedged at the close can drift out of balance intraday, a limit measured at month end can be breached in between. Getting 7.5 is fine; saying why the answer is not zero is what earns the point.

    Have the general formula ready, because the follow-up usually asks for another time. At 9:45, the minute hand is at 270 degrees and the hour hand at 270 plus 22.5, a gap of 22.5 degrees. The hands overlap eleven times in twelve hours, roughly every 65.45 minutes, and working that out is the usual second question.

    Where candidates lose it

    The trap is answering zero, fast. The question is short, the picture feels obvious, and the hour hand's drift is exactly the detail the static picture hides.

    If you catch yourself, say so: both hands look as if they point at the 3, but the hour hand has moved a quarter of the way on. Correcting out loud is almost as good as getting it right first time.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What is the angle at 9:45?
    • How many times a day do the hands overlap, and when is the first overlap after 12:00?
    • At what time between 3 and 4 are the hands exactly opposite each other?
  2. 019Three traders, Asha, Bilal and Chen, are asked who breached a limit. Exactly one of them did, and exactly one of them tells the truth. Asha says Bilal did it, Bilal says he did not, and Chen says he did not. Who breached the limit?Logic, estimation and brainteasersCoreRating agencyRisk GCC

    Try it first

    Who breached the limit?

    Show the worked solution

    Chen breached the limit, and Bilal is the one telling the truth. Assume each trader in turn is the culprit and count the true statements. Asha as culprit makes two statements true, Bilal's and Chen's. Bilal as culprit also makes two true, Asha's and Chen's. Only Chen as culprit leaves exactly one true statement, Bilal's denial, which matches the rules.

    Where do you start when every statement might be a lie?

    Think of a lost house key and three rooms. Rather than arguing about who saw what, you check each room in turn and stop when one fits. With three possible culprits, the fastest route is to assume each one did it, work out which statements are then true, and keep the case that matches the rule of exactly one truth. That turns an argument about who is lying into three short checks.

    Assume each culprit in turn and count the true statementsIf the culprit isAsha: Bilal did itBilal: not meChen: not meTrue countAshaFalseTrueTrue2rule brokenBilalTrueFalseTrue2rule brokenChenFalseTrueFalse1consistentRule: exactly one culprit, and exactly one of the three statements is true.Only the Chen row has one true statement, so Chen breached the limit and only Bilal told the truth.
    Assuming Asha is the culprit gives two true statements and assuming Bilal gives two, both breaking the rule, while assuming Chen gives exactly one true statement, Bilal's, so Chen breached the limit.

    Is there a shortcut that finds it faster?

    Yes: look for two statements that cannot both be false. Asha says Bilal did it and Bilal says he did not, so exactly one of those two is true whoever the culprit is. That uses up the single true statement, which means Chen's statement must be false. Chen saying he did not do it is false, so Chen did it. Saying this pairing out loud shows the interviewer you look for structure before grinding through cases.

    Then connect it to the job, in one line. A limit breach investigation often starts with conflicting accounts, and the same discipline applies: list the possibilities, check each against the hard evidence, and discard the ones that contradict it. The trade records play the part of the rule here; the accounts are only as good as what they agree with.

    Where candidates lose it

    The trap is trusting the first statement and following it: Asha accuses Bilal, so candidates test Bilal first and then get tangled. Starting from an accusation lets the story steer you.

    The other loss is solving it silently. Say each assumption and its count of true statements; the reasoning is what the interviewer scores.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Change the rule to exactly one liar. Who breached now?
    • Add a fourth trader, Dev, who says Asha is lying. Does the answer change?
    • How would you set up a truth table for this in a spreadsheet?
  3. 033A price rises 20% and then falls 20%. Separately, a bank's gross NPA ratio moves from 2% to 3%. What is the net price change, and how would you describe the NPA move, both in percentage points and in percent?Logic, estimation and brainteasersWarm upRisk GCCAsset manager risk

    Try it first

    The gross NPA ratio went from 2% to 3%. Which description is wrong?

    Show the worked solution

    The price ends 4% lower, and the NPA ratio rose by 1 percentage point, which is a 50% increase. 100 up 20% is 120, and 20% off 120 is 24, leaving 96. The ratio moved from 2% to 3%: the gap is 1 percentage point, and 1 over the starting 2 is 50%. Saying it rose 1% would be wrong on both counts.

    Why does up 20% then down 20% lose money?

    A shopkeeper marks a shirt up 20% from Rs 100 to Rs 120, then runs a 20% off sale. The discount is taken on Rs 120, so it is Rs 24, and the shirt sells for Rs 96. Each percentage is measured on whatever base exists at the time, and the fall happens on a bigger base than the rise. The two moves multiply rather than add: 1.2 x 0.8 is 0.96. In general, up x then down x leaves you down x squared, here 0.2 x 0.2, or 4%.

    Percent of what? Two answers to the same kind of slip100Start120After +20%96After -20%+20 on 100, then -24 on 120Net: -4%2%Last year3%This year+1 percentage point(3 - 2)+50 percent(1 / 2)Gross NPA ratio
    A price that rises 20% from 100 to 120 and then falls 20% ends at 96, a 4% loss; a gross NPA ratio that moves from 2% to 3% has risen by 1 percentage point, which is a 50% increase on its starting level.

    What is the difference between a percentage point and a percent?

    When the quantity is itself a percentage, there are two honest ways to describe a change. Percentage points measure the gap between two rates by subtraction; percent measures that gap relative to where you started. From 2% to 3% is +1 point by subtraction and +50% relative to 2. A gross NPA ratioNon-performing assets, loans on which the borrower has stopped paying for a set period, as a share of total loans before provisions. is a rate, so a risk report must say which one it means, and the two carry different messages: one point sounds mild; half as many bad loans again sounds serious.

    In a risk committee, both descriptions are used and both can mislead. A desk that wants to play down deterioration quotes points; one that wants attention quotes percent. The disciplined habit is to quote the level and the change in points together, 3% from 2%, and let the reader see the relative move for themselves.

    Where candidates lose it

    On the price, the trap is answering zero because plus 20 and minus 20 seem to cancel. They cancel only when percentages are added, and returns multiply.

    On the ratio, the trap is saying it rose by 1%. That phrase means 2.02%, a rounding-level change, and a risk manager who uses it in a committee has understated a 50% jump in bad loans.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • A price falls 20% and then rises 20%. Where does it end?
    • A 10% default rate rises to 12%. Describe the change both ways.
    • Why do regulators and banks prefer basis points when quoting changes in rates?
  4. 044Estimate the cash a city's ATMs must dispense each weekday, given a population of 40 lakh, 75% of them adults, 30% of adults withdrawing once a week, an average withdrawal of Rs 3,000, and withdrawals spread evenly over five weekdays.Logic, estimation and brainteasersCoreTreasury and ALMRisk GCC

    Try it first

    Which order of magnitude is right for cash dispensed per weekday?

    Show the worked solution

    About Rs 54 crore a weekday. 40 lakh people x 75% adults is 30 lakh adults. 30% of them withdraw weekly, 9 lakh withdrawals. At Rs 3,000 each that is Rs 270 crore a week, and spread over five weekdays, Rs 54 crore a day. Moving the weekly share between 20% and 40% puts the answer between Rs 36 and 72 crore.

    How do you structure the estimate so the interviewer can follow it?

    Planning food for a wedding, you do not guess the total rice; you count guests, portions per guest and grams per portion. A sizing answer is a chain of multipliers, each one a stated assumption, so the interviewer can challenge any link without the whole answer collapsing. Say the chain before you multiply: people, adults, weekly users, ticket size, days. Then the arithmetic is almost an afterthought.

    A sizing answer is a chain of stated assumptionsCity population40 lakhAdults30 lakhx 75%Withdraw weekly9 lakhx 30%Cash a weekRs 270 crx Rs 3,000Per weekdayRs 54 cr/ 5 daysEach multiplier is an assumption you say out loud; the weakest one is the weekly share.If 20% to 40%withdraw weeklyRs 36 crRs 72 crbase case Rs 54 cr020406080Rs crore a weekday
    Multiplying 40 lakh people by 75% adults, 30% weekly users and Rs 3,000 a withdrawal gives Rs 270 crore a week, about Rs 54 crore a weekday, and the answer stays between Rs 36 and 72 crore while the weekly share sits between 20% and 40%.

    How do you sanity check Rs 54 crore?

    Test it from a second angle. Rs 270 crore a week across 30 lakh adults is Rs 900 per adult per week, a plausible cash habit in a city where digital payments carry much of the load. It also means about 1.8 lakh transactions a weekday; if you assumed a number of ATMs, you could check whether each would handle a sensible number of withdrawals a day. Then name the weakest link: the 30% weekly share. Doubling it doubles the answer; the population and adult share are far less uncertain.

    The relationship
    40 lakh×0.75×0.30×Rs 3,000÷5=Rs 54 crore40\text{ lakh} \times 0.75 \times 0.30 \times \text{Rs } 3{,}000 \div 5 = \text{Rs } 54 \text{ crore}
    0.75the share of the population who are adults
    0.30the share of adults who withdraw once a week
    5weekdays the withdrawals are spread across
    What it says in wordsMultiply the chain of assumptions, then divide by the days the total is spread over.

    Finish with why a treasury desk cares. Cash is a liquidityThe ability to meet a payment obligation, here physical cash in machines, on time and without loss. obligation that cannot be deferred, and the average is not the peak. Salary days, festivals and long weekends bunch demand, so the cash plan is sized to a peak day plus a buffer, and an empty machine is an operational failure as much as a customer one. Rs 54 crore is the average the peaks are built on.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common loss is racing to a number without stating the chain, then being unable to defend it when the interviewer challenges one input. The interviewer cares more about the structure than whether you land on 54.

    The other slip is forgetting the last step and quoting the weekly Rs 270 crore as the daily figure. Say the units at every link: people, withdrawals a week, rupees a week, rupees a day.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • How would you size the peak day, around the first of the month?
    • If 10% of the city's ATMs are down at any time, how does the cash plan change?
    • How would you estimate the number of ATMs the city needs?
  5. 058A bank's loan book grows from Rs 4,000 crore to Rs 5,000 crore in a year, while its bad loans grow from Rs 120 crore to Rs 140 crore. Did asset quality improve?Logic, estimation and brainteasersWarm upBank credit riskRisk GCC

    Try it first

    The bad loan ratio fell from 3.0% to 2.8%. What is the best reading?

    Show the worked solution

    Probably not: the ratio improved only because the book grew. The bad loan ratio fell from 3.0% to 2.8%, but the bad loans themselves rose 16.7%, from Rs 120 crore to Rs 140 crore. The Rs 1,000 crore of new lending is too young to have defaulted. Set against last year's book, bad loans are 3.5% of the loans that could have gone bad.

    How can a ratio fall while the problem grows?

    A school with 40 failing students out of 1,000 has a 4% failure rate. Admit 500 new students in April, before any exams, and the rate drops to 2.7% without a single student improving. Any ratio can fall because its denominator grew, and a fast-growing loan book dilutes its bad loan ratio with loans that have not yet had time to fail. Here bad loans rose Rs 20 crore while the book rose Rs 1,000 crore.

    The amount went up; the ratio went down because the book grewBad loans, Rs crore120Last year140This year+16.7%: worseBad loans / loan book3.0%Last year120 / 4,0002.8%This year140 / 5,0003.5%Lagged140 / 4,000the ratio flatters; the lagged ratio worsens
    Bad loans rose from Rs 120 crore to Rs 140 crore, up 16.7%, yet the bad loan ratio fell from 3.0% to 2.8% because the book grew 25%. Against last year's Rs 4,000 crore book, the same Rs 140 crore is 3.5%, which is worse.

    What would you check before calling it either way?

    Loans take time to go bad, a process lenders call seasoningThe time a loan needs before its true default rate shows, because few borrowers default in the first months after taking a loan.. The fair test compares bad loans with the book that was old enough to produce them, which is why risk teams track lagged ratios and default rates by the year a loan was written. A lagged ratio of 3.5% against 3.0% says the old book is getting worse, not better.

    The relationship
    1405,000=2.8%but1404,000=3.5%>1204,000=3.0%\frac{140}{5{,}000} = 2.8\% \quad\text{but}\quad \frac{140}{4{,}000} = 3.5\% > \frac{120}{4{,}000} = 3.0\%
    140this year's bad loans, Rs crore
    5,000 and 4,000this year's and last year's loan book, Rs crore
    What it says in wordsMeasured against the loans old enough to default, the bad loan ratio rose.

    The limitation: the lagged ratio assumes the new loans added nothing to the Rs 140 crore. Some of the extra Rs 20 crore could come from new loans that failed fast, which would itself be a warning about how they were underwritten. Either way, the headline ratio is the weakest of the three readings.

    Where candidates lose it

    The trap is reading the headline ratio and saying yes, asset quality improved. Interviewers use this exact set-up because a fast-growing lender often reports a falling bad loan ratio just before its problems surface.

    The other miss is saying no without a number. Give the rupee growth in bad loans, 16.7%, and the lagged ratio, 3.5%, so the answer rests on arithmetic rather than suspicion.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What growth in the book would have kept the ratio flat at 3.0%?
    • How would you build a vintage table to settle the question?
    • Why does fast loan growth often come before a rise in bad loans?
  6. 071Assume Rs 100 lakh crore of government bonds are outstanding with an average modified duration of 7. Roughly how much does their total market value change for a 1 basis point rise in yields?Logic, estimation and brainteasersCoreTreasury and ALMBank market risk

    Try it first

    Order of magnitude first: what does one basis point cost the holders?

    Show the worked solution

    About Rs 7,000 crore of value lost for a 1 basis point rise. A bond's price falls by roughly its modified duration times the change in yield. For the whole stock that is Rs 100 lakh crore x 7 x 0.0001, which is 0.07 lakh crore, or Rs 7,000 crore. The same arithmetic makes a 100 basis point rise cost about Rs 7 lakh crore.

    Why does a hundredth of a per cent move so much money?

    A one paisa rise in the price of petrol means nothing to one driver and a great deal to an oil company selling crores of litres. The move is small; the base is enormous. The DV01The change in value of a bond or portfolio for a one basis point change in yield, sometimes called PV01. of a holding is value times duration times one basis point, so a stock worth Rs 100 lakh crore with a duration of 7 carries Rs 7,000 crore of value per basis point.

    Stock x duration x one basis point: a tiny move on a large stockBonds outstanding100 lakh croreassumed for the puzzleModified durationx 7% price change per 1%One basis pointx 0.0001= 0.01%Change in valueRs 7,000 crore= 0.07 lakh croreScale it up1 bpRs 7,000 crore10 bpRs 70,000 crore100 bpRs 7 lakh crore
    Rs 100 lakh crore of bonds times a modified duration of 7 times one basis point is 0.07 lakh crore, which is Rs 7,000 crore of value per basis point. Scaled to a 100 basis point move the change is Rs 7 lakh crore.

    How do you keep the units straight under pressure?

    Convert once, at the end, and say the conversion aloud. One lakh crore is 1,00,000 crore, so 0.07 lakh crore is 7,000 crore; do the multiplication in the big unit and translate only the answer. A useful check: duration 7 means a 1% move changes value by 7%, so 1 basis point, a hundredth of that, changes it by 0.07%, and 0.07% of 100 lakh crore is 0.07 lakh crore.

    The relationship
    ΔV≈−Dmod×V×Δy=−7×100×0.0001=−0.07 lakh crore\Delta V \approx -D_{\text{mod}} \times V \times \Delta y = -7 \times 100 \times 0.0001 = -0.07 \text{ lakh crore}
    D_modmodified duration, 7
    Vmarket value of the bonds, 100 lakh crore, assumed
    \Delta ythe change in yield, one basis point or 0.0001
    What it says in wordsValue change is duration times value times the yield change, with a minus sign because prices fall when yields rise.

    State the limits. The stock and duration are assumptions for the puzzle, not current figures, which you would look up. The duration rule ignores convexity, harmless at one basis point but not at a hundred, where the true fall is a little smaller than Rs 7 lakh crore. And the loss lands on whoever holds the bonds, which is why a bank's treasury watches the DV01 of its government bond book daily.

    Where candidates lose it

    The trap is the units. Candidates multiply correctly to 0.07 and then say Rs 0.07 crore or Rs 70 crore because they lose track of lakh crore. Carry the unit through every step and convert once.

    The second slip is forgetting that duration is in per cent per per cent, then dividing by 100 twice. One basis point is 0.0001 as a decimal; multiply by it once.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • If banks hold a third of the stock, what is the banking system's DV01?
    • Why is the loss for a 100 basis point rise slightly less than 100 times the DV01?
    • How would a bank hedge part of this exposure?
  7. 083You have eight identical-looking balls, one of them slightly heavier, and a two-pan balance. What is the fewest number of weighings that guarantees you find the heavy ball?Logic, estimation and brainteasersCoreBank market riskRisk GCC

    Try it first

    What is the minimum number of weighings that always works?

    Show the worked solution

    Two weighings. Put three balls on each pan and leave two aside. If one pan drops, the heavy ball is among its three: weigh one against another, and a balance points to the third. If the pans balance, weigh the two set aside against each other. A balance has three outcomes, so two weighings separate up to nine balls.

    Why is halving the wrong instinct?

    A guessing game where someone answers only yes or no halves the possibilities with each question. A balance answers in three ways: left heavier, right heavier or level. Each weighing has three outcomes, so the best split is into three groups, and the balanced outcome is information, not a wasted turn. Four against four uses only two of the three outcomes, because the pans can never balance, and so it wastes a third of what the scale can tell you.

    Three outcomes per weighing, so split into three groupsWeighing 1: 1 2 3 against 4 5 67 and 8 wait on the tableleft dropsWeigh 1 against 2heavy in 1, 2, 3ball 1left dropsball 3balanceball 2right dropsbalanceWeigh 7 against 8heavy is 7 or 8ball 7left dropsball 8right dropsright dropsWeigh 4 against 5heavy in 4, 5, 6ball 4left dropsball 6balanceball 5right drops8 balls, 9 possible endings after two weighings: 3 x 3 = 9, which is at least 8
    Weighing 1, 2 and 3 against 4, 5 and 6 sends every case down one of three branches, and a second weighing within each branch names the heavy ball, so eight balls are always solved in two weighings.

    How do you prove two is the minimum and find the limit?

    One weighing has three outcomes, and eight balls need eight different answers, so one weighing cannot be enough. Two weighings have 3 times 3, nine outcomes. With w weighings you can separate at most 3 to the power w balls, so nine balls also need only two, and a tenth ball needs a third weighing. Saying the bound, not only the procedure, is what turns a trick into reasoning.

    The relationship
    3w≥n⇒w=⌈log⁡38⌉=23^{w} \ge n \quad\Rightarrow\quad w = \lceil \log_3 8 \rceil = 2
    wnumber of weighings
    nnumber of balls, 8
    3outcomes of one weighing
    What it says in wordsYou need enough weighings that three to the power of that number covers every ball.

    Why would a risk interviewer ask this?

    It tests whether you count what a test can tell you before you run it. The same habit applies to a control check: a review that can only return pass or fail tells you less than one that also flags items for a closer look. Name the three outcomes first and the answer follows.

    Where candidates lose it

    Most candidates split four against four, then two against two, then one against one, and answer three. It works, but it is not the minimum, because a balance never happens in the first two steps.

    The other loss is finding two weighings without saying why one is impossible. Give the counting bound: one weighing, three outcomes, fewer than eight balls.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What is the most balls you can handle in three weighings?
    • Now you do not know whether the odd ball is heavier or lighter. How many weighings for twelve balls?
    • What if the scale shows the weight difference rather than just which side drops?
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