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Risk Management Program · CoreTrack
1Risk, Treasury & Financial Control
iRisk Foundations
Risk Appetite, Tolerance, Capacity…The Risk Taxonomy and UniverseRisk Register vs Risk MatrixStress TestingScenario Analysis vs Stress TestingImpact and LikelihoodLikelihoodThe Risk EventRisk Assessment
iiEnterprise Risk Management
Enterprise Risk ManagementThe Four Risk TreatmentsRisk CultureRisk MaturityRisk Monitoring
iiiRisk Governance
Risk GovernanceHow to set a…The Risk PolicyThe Risk OwnerThe Risk Committee and Its CharterThe Risk Limit FrameworkRisk EscalationHow to set a…
ivCredit and Counterparty Risk
Collateral AgreementsCollateral vs NettingProbability of DefaultExposureCounterparty ExposureConcentration Risk vs Wrong Way RiskCounterparty Risk vs Credit RiskHow to assess Counterparty ExposureHow to assess Concentration Risk
vMarket Risk
Market RiskSensitivity MeasuresThe Hedging PolicyInterest Rate Risk in the Banking BookIRRBB vs Market RiskExpected ShortfallEconomic Value of EquityVaR BacktestingOpen PositionValue at RiskValue at Risk and Expected ShortfallEconomic Value SensitivityFX ExposureValue at Risk vs Expected ShortfallEarnings at Risk vs…FX Transaction Risk vs…How to measure Interest…How to measure Foreign…
viLiquidity Risk
Liquidity Stress TestingLiquidity Gap vs Liquidity BufferMaturity MismatchThe Debt Maturity ProfileFunding ConcentrationSurvival HorizonThe Contingency Funding PlanNet Stable Funding RatioLiquidity Risk vs Funding RiskLiquidity Coverage RatioLiquidity Gap and BufferHow to run a Liquidity Gap Analysis
viiOperational Risk
Operational LossThe Loss EventRisk and Control Self AssessmentException ManagementInformation Security as a…Segregation of DutiesIssue ManagementThe Near MissRoot Cause Analysis in RiskThe Fraud TriangleCyber Risk vs Third Party RiskHow to run a…How to assess Third…
viiiRisk Reporting, Data and Model Risk
Model RiskModel Validation vs BacktestingHow to run Model ValidationData Governance in RiskModel Risk vs Data RiskKey Risk IndicatorsManagement InformationRisk ReportingRisk ScoreEarnings at RiskRisk Adjusted ReturnEarly Warning IndicatorsHow to build a KRI Dashboard
ixTreasury
Corporate TreasuryAsset Liability ManagementIntragroup FundingThe Treasury PolicyThe Treasury Management SystemThe Cash ForecastCash Pooling and ConcentrationHow to build a Cash Forecast
xFinancial Controls and Assurance
Control AssuranceThe Control LifecycleThe Assurance MapThe Audit FindingIssue RemediationInternal Financial ControlsControl Design vs Control EffectivenessHow to map Internal Financial ControlsHow to test Control…Control DeficiencyMaterial Weakness
xiOperational Resilience
Operational ResilienceBusiness Continuity and Disaster RecoveryBusiness Continuity vs Operational…Crisis ManagementDisaster RecoveryIncident Management

Risk Adjusted Return: Return Measured Against Capital Held

A risk adjusted return is income less an expected loss charge, divided by capital. The adjustment recognises that income earned by taking more risk is not worth the same as income earned by taking less. At Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited, invented, one numerator of Rs 2,232 crore over four different capital bases gives four answers between 3.72 and 33.8 per cent.

The spread between those two answers is faintly unsettling. One bank, one year, one set of books, one arithmetic operation performed correctly every time, and the answer comes out anywhere between 3.72 per cent and 33.8 per cent depending on which figure the person doing the dividing reached for. Nobody has made a mistake. Nobody has been dishonest. The measure simply has more than one lawful form, and the person quoting it did not say which one they built.

What is a risk adjusted return actually adjusting for?

The mechanism is easier to feel at the scale of a street than at Rs 96,000 crore. Consider two shopkeepers on the same street. One sells rice and lentils for cash, takes no credit, and clears Rs 40,000 a month. The other sells the same goods but lets half the neighbourhood buy on account, and clears Rs 60,000 a month. On the month's takings the second shopkeeper is winning by half. But some of those accounts will never be collected. The second shopkeeper has been selling on account for eleven years and knows roughly how many. Subtract that, and the two are much closer. A risk adjusted return is nothing more sophisticated than that subtraction, done deliberately and written down.

A risk adjusted returnIncome less a charge for expected losses, divided by capital, so that income earned by taking more risk is not treated as equal to income earned by taking less. therefore does two things at once, and they are usually described as one. First it takes something off the income for the losses the risk is expected to produce. Second it divides what is left by the capital that had to be held to run the position at all. The first step deals with the fact that risky income is worth less than safe income of the same size. The second deals with the fact that risky business consumes more of the institution's own money before it can be written, so two activities earning the same rupees are not equally attractive if one of them ties up twice the capital.

Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited, invented, supplies the arithmetic from here on. Every figure below is that bank's own working number and none of them is a requirement placed on it by anybody. The bank earned net interest income of Rs 2,880 crore over twelve numbered months, and month 12 is the reporting date. The numerator starts at that Rs 2,880 crore, and almost immediately the choices begin.

A RISK ADJUSTED RETURN IS A FRACTION, AND SOMEBODY CHOSE BOTH HALVES Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited, invented. Every figure here is the bank own working number. THE NUMERATOR net interest income Rs 2,880 crore less a charge for the losses the risk is expected to produce THE DENOMINATOR the capital held against it and this bank has four figures that answer to that name THREE LOSS CHARGES IN THIS BANK Rs 343.6 crore, what the model expects Rs 584.1 crore, the same sum restated Rs 648 crore, what was actually charged FOUR CAPITAL BASES IN THIS BANK tier 1 Rs 6,600 crore, total Rs 9,000 crore equity Rs 7,680 crore risk weighted assets Rs 60,000 crore 3 LOSS CHARGES x 4 CAPITAL BASES = 12 CORRECT ANSWERS to one question, about one bank, in one year, with nothing in dispute Every figure shown is the invented bank own computation and none of them is a requirement placed on it by anybody.
Both halves of the fraction hide a choice, and this one bank carries three loss charges and four capital bases, so twelve correctly computed answers exist to a single question.

What goes into the numerator, and what is a loss charge?

The numerator is income less a charge for losses. The word that does the work there is charge, and a charge is not a loss that has happened. The charge is a subtraction made in advance for losses the institution believes the position will produce, on average, before anybody knows which particular borrower will fail. The advance subtraction is an expected loss chargeThe loss the institution own model says an exposure will produce on average, subtracted before the return is computed rather than after a default occurs., and subtracting it is the single idea that separates a risk adjusted return from an ordinary one.

Why subtract something that has not happened? Because the alternative subtracts nothing until it does, and by then the comparison being attempted is years out of date. The shopkeeper again. If the bad accounts are left until they are formally written off, the month in which they are written off looks terrible and every month before it looked wonderful, and neither picture said anything useful about how the business was actually being run. Subtracting an expected loss moves the cost of the risk into the same period as the income the risk earned. No other arrangement allows the two to be compared at all.

The expected loss is a modelled number. Somebody built the model, somebody chose its assumptions, and somebody else may have chosen differently. So the numerator is not read off the accounts. The numerator is assembled, and the assembly is visible to the person doing it and invisible to everybody who receives the answer.

Which of this bank's three loss numbers is subtracted?

Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited carries three separate loss figures for the same twelve months, and this is not disorder. Each of them answers a genuinely different question, and each of them is defensible.

The first is what its own credit model expects. Run grade by grade across the performing book, the model produces an expected loss of Rs 343.6 crore. The second is the same computation restated. The model assumes it will lose 40.0 per cent of an exposure when a borrower defaults, but the bank actually holds provision coverage of 68.0 per cent against the exposures that have already defaulted. The 40.0 per cent assumption and the 68.0 per cent coverage have never been reconciled with each other, and neither of them is wrong. Run the same grade by grade sum at the coverage the bank actually provides and it asks for Rs 584.1 crore. The third is the plainest of the three: the credit costThe charge an institution actually took to its income statement for the year, which is a different number from what its model expects to lose. the bank charged to its income statement for the year, Rs 648 crore.

None of the three is the true one. Subtracting the model figure gives a forward looking number, one that says what this book should cost to run. Subtracting the restatement gives the same forward looking number at the bank's own harsher assumption. Subtracting the charged figure gives a number that ties, rupee for rupee, to the year that was actually reported. All three are honest, and the difference between the largest and the smallest is Rs 304.4 crore of numerator, produced by nothing except which figure somebody reached for.

ONE DENOMINATOR, TIER 1 CAPITAL. TWO LOSS CHARGES. TWO ANSWERS. Both computations divide by the same Rs 6,600 crore. Only the subtraction differs. SUBTRACT WHAT THE MODEL EXPECTS Rs 2,880 crore less Rs 343.6 crore numerator Rs 2,536.4 crore 38.4 per cent on tier 1 capital of Rs 6,600 crore one choice SUBTRACT WHAT WAS ACTUALLY CHARGED Rs 2,880 crore less Rs 648 crore numerator Rs 2,232 crore 33.8 per cent on tier 1 capital of Rs 6,600 crore 4.6 PERCENTAGE POINTS, AND NOT ONE RUPEE OF RISK CHANGED
Choosing between two of the bank own loss figures moves the tier 1 answer by 4.6 percentage points before any exposure, limit or capital figure has moved at all.
Try it out

Which loss number should go into the numerator: the model Rs 343.6 crore, or the Rs 648 crore actually charged?

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What goes into the denominator, and why is there more than one?

Now the other half, and it is where the spread really opens. The denominator is capital, and this bank has four figures that a reasonable person would call capital. The four are not competing versions of one quantity. Each is a different object, and the four happen to sit in the same part of the balance sheet.

Tier 1 capitalThe strongest layer of an institution capital, being the part that absorbs losses first and while the institution is still running. is Rs 6,600 crore at month 12. Tier 1 is the strongest layer, the part that takes losses first while the institution is still trading. Total capitalTier 1 capital plus the additional layers an institution counts, being a larger denominator and therefore a smaller answer. is Rs 9,000 crore, being tier 1 plus the Rs 2,400 crore of subordinated bonds the bank counts in its second layer. Equity, the accounting figure, is Rs 7,680 crore, being share capital of Rs 1,200 crore plus reserves and surplus of Rs 6,480 crore. And risk weighted assetsExposures scaled by risk weights, used as a denominator when comparing activities that carry different amounts of risk for the same rupees. are Rs 60,000 crore, being the bank own scaling of its exposures by how risky each is, made up of Rs 50,400 crore for credit risk, Rs 4,800 crore for market risk and Rs 4,800 crore for operational risk.

The last of those four is a different kind of animal from the first three, and it is worth saying why. Tier 1, total capital and equity are all amounts of money somebody put in or the institution retained. Risk weighted assets are not money at all; they are a measure of how much risk is being carried. Dividing by them asks what the bank earns for the risk it takes. Dividing by the other three asks what it earns for the money its providers left in. Earning for risk and earning for money are two different questions, and the fact that both are called a risk adjusted return is exactly why the figure travels so badly.

FOUR FIGURES IN ONE BANK THAT ANYBODY MIGHT PUT UNDER THE LINE All four are month 12 figures from the same invented balance sheet, in Rs crore. TIER 1 CAPITAL the strongest layer Rs 6,600 crore EQUITY capital plus reserves Rs 7,680 crore TOTAL CAPITAL tier 1 plus the second layer Rs 9,000 crore RISK WEIGHTED ASSETS not money, a measure of risk Rs 60,000 crore 0 20,000 40,000 60,000
The largest of the four candidate denominators is about nine times the smallest, which is why the same numerator produces answers nearly ten times apart.
Try it out

Before the arithmetic: which of the four denominators will give the smallest answer, and why?

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What do the four answers actually come out at?

Take the charged credit cost, the one figure that ties to the reported year, and build the numerator once: Rs 2,880 crore less Rs 648 crore is Rs 2,232 crore. Now divide it four times. Over tier 1 capital of Rs 6,600 crore, 33.8 per cent. Over total capital of Rs 9,000 crore, 24.8 per cent. Over equity of Rs 7,680 crore, 29.1 per cent. Over risk weighted assets of Rs 60,000 crore, 3.72 per cent.

One numerator, four answers, from 3.72 to 33.8 per cent, and every single one of them is correctly computed from the same set of books. The largest is 9.09 times the smallest, and it is 9.09 times for the plainest reason available: Rs 60,000 crore is 9.09 times Rs 6,600 crore. Nothing subtle is happening. The information is entirely in the denominator baseWhich capital figure the return is divided by, without which a percentage cannot be interpreted or compared with anything., and a percentage quoted without it has told the listener almost nothing.

ONE NUMERATOR OF Rs 2,232 CRORE, DIVIDED FOUR TIMES Shared scale, 0 to 40 per cent. All four answers are correctly computed from one set of books. TIER 1 CAPITAL Rs 6,600 crore 33.8 per cent TOTAL CAPITAL Rs 9,000 crore 24.8 per cent EQUITY Rs 7,680 crore 29.1 per cent RISK WEIGHTED ASSETS Rs 60,000 crore 3.72 per cent 0 10 20 30 40 The tier 1 answer is 9.09 times the risk weighted asset answer, because Rs 60,000 crore is 9.09 times Rs 6,600 crore.
The same Rs 2,232 crore produces four answers spread across thirty percentage points, and choosing the base is the whole of the difference.

There is one more thing the arithmetic throws up here, and it is a small trap rather than a large one. The bank sets its own internal floor for its total capital ratio at 11.0 per cent, and 11.0 per cent of Rs 60,000 crore of risk weighted assets is Rs 6,600 crore. Tier 1 capital is also Rs 6,600 crore. Two entirely different objects, an amount the bank holds and an amount its own policy asks it to hold, wearing the same figure. Nothing connects them except arithmetic, and setting them side by side without saying which is which invites a reader to supply a relationship that was never there.

ONE FIGURE, TWO OBJECTS, AND THEY ARE NOT RELATED Both are month 12 figures of the invented bank. The internal floor is the bank own choice. AN AMOUNT HELD Rs 6,600 crore tier 1 capital at month 12, being the strongest layer the bank actually has it is a balance on the books AN AMOUNT REQUIRED Rs 6,600 crore 11.0 per cent of Rs 60,000 crore of risk weighted assets, the bank own floor it is a threshold it set itself NOTHING CONNECTS THEM BUT ARITHMETIC, SO ANY LINE CARRYING BOTH MUST SAY WHICH IS WHICH
An amount held and an amount required happen to be the same Rs 6,600 crore, so any sentence carrying both has to name each object.
Try it out

Tier 1 capital is Rs 6,600 crore and the bank own internal capital floor requires Rs 6,600 crore. Are those the same thing?

What is the measure actually for?

If the level moves this much on choices nobody sees, what survives? The answer is that a risk adjusted return is a comparison measureA number whose value lies in the difference between two of it, computed the same way, rather than in its own level. and not a level. Its whole value is in the difference between two of them built identically.

Computed the same way for the wholesale lending business and for the retail deposit franchise, it says which of the two earns more for the capital it consumes. Computed the same way for this year and last, it says whether the institution got better or worse at converting capital into income after paying for the risk. Computed once, in isolation, and put on a slide as a percentage, it is a number that cannot be checked, cannot be compared and cannot be argued with. Producing nothing at all would have left the reader better off.

The level of a risk adjusted return is a statement about the person who built it. The difference between two of them is a statement about the business. The discipline the measure demands is therefore not really arithmetic. Everything hard about it lies in holding both halves still, so that the quantity under comparison is the only one that moves.

Try it out

What is a risk adjusted return actually for?

What does the whole relationship look like when the loss charge moves?

Hold the denominator at tier 1 capital of Rs 6,600 crore and move the numerator instead, and the shape is the least surprising one in finance: a straight falling line. The denominator never moves, so every extra rupee of loss charge takes exactly the same fraction off the answer, and the line has to come out straight. Rs 66 crore of extra loss charge takes exactly one percentage point off the tier 1 basis, every time, anywhere on the line.

Reading across it shows where the bank's own three figures land, and where its severe scenario lands. At no loss charge at all the answer is 43.6 per cent. At the model Rs 343.6 crore it is 38.4 per cent. At the Rs 584.1 crore restatement it is 34.8 per cent. At the charged Rs 648 crore it is 33.8 per cent. And under the bank's own severe scenario ST3, at a credit cost of Rs 1,944 crore, it is 14.2 per cent. A severe scenario cuts this measure by more than half without a single capital figure moving, and the sensitivity in the fraction therefore lives entirely in the numerator.

THE RETURN ON TIER 1 CAPITAL AGAINST THE LOSS CHARGE SUBTRACTED Numerator Rs 2,880 crore less the loss charge, over Rs 6,600 crore. Straight, because the denominator never moves. 45 30 15 0 PER CENT ON TIER 1 43.6 38.4 34.8 33.8 15.0 14.2 0 584.1 1,890 343.6 648 1,944 THE LOSS CHARGE SUBTRACTED, Rs CRORE Rs 66 crore of extra loss charge takes exactly one percentage point off this line, anywhere along it.
The line falls perfectly straight because the denominator never moves, so every Rs 66 crore of loss charge costs exactly one percentage point.
Try it out

The numerator is Rs 2,232 crore. Before the control below moves: how much difference does it make whether the divisor is tier 1 capital or risk weighted assets?

Play with it

Move one loss charge and watch four answers move together

One control: the loss charge subtracted from net interest income of Rs 2,880 crore, from Rs 0 to Rs 2,000 crore. Four consequences: the return on tier 1 capital of Rs 6,600 crore, on total capital of Rs 9,000 crore, on equity of Rs 7,680 crore and on risk weighted assets of Rs 60,000 crore. The control opens at Rs 648 crore, the credit cost the bank actually charged.

NO LOSS CHARGERs 648 croreRs 2,000 crore

Marked positions on the control: Rs 343.6 crore the model expected loss, Rs 584.1 crore the same sum restated at 68.0 per cent coverage, Rs 648 crore the charged credit cost, Rs 1,890 crore the crossing, Rs 1,944 crore the credit cost of the bank own severe scenario ST3.

THE NUMERATOR: Rs 2,880 CRORE OF NET INTEREST INCOME LESS THE LOSS CHARGE Rs 2,232 crore loss charge Rs 648 crore THE FOUR ANSWERS ON ONE SHARED SCALE, 0 TO 45 PER CENT TIER 1 Rs 6,600 crore 33.8 per cent TOTAL CAPITAL Rs 9,000 crore 24.8 per cent EQUITY Rs 7,680 crore 29.1 per cent RISK WEIGHTED Rs 60,000 crore 3.72 per cent 0 15 30 45 THE RISK WEIGHTED ASSET BASIS ON ITS OWN SCALE, 0 TO 5 PER CENT 3.72 per cent 0 2 4 5 the same answer, magnified
Numerator
Rs 2,232 crore
On tier 1 capital
33.8 per cent
On total capital
24.8 per cent
On risk weighted assets
3.72 per cent

Net interest income of Rs 2,880 crore less a loss charge of Rs 648 crore gives Rs 2,232 crore, being 33.8 per cent of tier 1 capital, 24.8 per cent of total capital, 29.1 per cent of equity and 3.72 per cent of risk weighted assets.

Educational illustration. This numerator carries no operating expense, no fee income and no tax charge, because no such figure exists anywhere in this record, so the result is not profit and is not a return on equity. The four answers never converge: the tier 1 reading is always 9.09 times the risk weighted asset reading, whatever the loss charge, because Rs 60,000 crore is 9.09 times Rs 6,600 crore. Money is held in whole rupees inside the control so nothing drifts.

The solved table, for a reader who never touches the control

Loss charge subtractedNumeratorOn tier 1On total capitalOn equityOn risk weighted assets
Rs 0, none at allRs 2,880 crore43.632.037.54.80
Rs 343.6 crore, the model expected lossRs 2,536.4 crore38.428.233.04.23
Rs 584.1 crore, restated at 68.0 per cent coverageRs 2,295.9 crore34.825.529.93.83
Rs 648 crore, the credit cost chargedRs 2,232 crore33.824.829.13.72
Rs 1,944 crore, scenario ST3 credit costRs 936 crore14.210.412.21.56

Every figure in that table is in per cent, every one is correctly computed, and the twenty of them describe one bank in one year. The shaded row is the worked default the control opens on.

Try it out

Under the bank own severe scenario the credit cost is Rs 1,944 crore. What happens to the tier 1 basis?

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Where does this return fall to fifteen per cent, and what does it land on?

Solve the line backwards. The tier 1 basis reaches 15.0 per cent when the numerator is 15.0 per cent of Rs 6,600 crore, or exactly Rs 990 crore. Getting there needs a loss charge of Rs 2,880 crore less Rs 990 crore, being Rs 1,890 crore. The crossing is clean, and it lands on two figures that already mean something else in this same bank.

Rs 990 crore is the cap on limit L8, the bank sensitivity limit on the economic value of its equity. Here it is a numerator that fell out of a subtraction. And 15.0 per cent is the bank total capital ratio at month 12. Here it is a return. A third collision waits one column across: the same Rs 990 crore over total capital of Rs 9,000 crore is 11.0 per cent, and 11.0 per cent is the bank own internal total capital floor. None of the three collisions means anything whatsoever. An unlabelled one is dangerous for precisely that reason: a reader will hunt for the connection and eventually supply one.

FOUR FIGURES THAT MEAN TWO THINGS IN ONE INVENTED BANK Left, what it is here. Right, what the same figure is elsewhere in the same case. Rs 990 crore, here the numerator left after subtracting Rs 1,890 crore from Rs 2,880 crore IS NOT Rs 990 crore, elsewhere the cap on limit L8, the sensitivity of the economic value of its equity 15.0 per cent, here the return on tier 1 capital when the numerator is Rs 990 crore IS NOT 15.0 per cent, elsewhere the bank own total capital ratio at month 12, on its own computation 11.0 per cent, here the same Rs 990 crore divided by total capital of Rs 9,000 crore IS NOT 11.0 per cent, elsewhere the bank own internal total capital floor, which it set for itself Rs 936 crore, here the numerator under the bank own severe scenario ST3 IS NOT Rs 936 crore, elsewhere counterparty C1 eligible collateral after the bank own haircut All eight readings belong to the same invented bank at the same month 12, and no arithmetic relationship exists between any pair.
Four figures in this bank each carry two unrelated meanings, so a line that prints one without naming its object invites a connection that does not exist.
Try it out

The tier 1 basis falls to 15.0 per cent at a loss charge of Rs 1,890 crore, leaving a numerator of Rs 990 crore. What has to be said when those numbers are written down?

What is missing from the numerator, and what does that forbid?

The numerator is incomplete, and this record cannot complete it

A numerator cannot be completed out of figures nobody ever recorded. The record for this bank holds net interest income of Rs 2,880 crore, a credit cost of Rs 648 crore and a set of capital figures. No operating expense was recorded. No fee or commission income was recorded. No tax charge was recorded. None of those three exists anywhere in this record, and no honest arithmetic can conjure them.

So Rs 2,232 crore is net interest income less a credit charge and nothing else. Rs 2,232 crore is not profit, and it is not a return on equity. The figure is not comparable with any published figure for any institution anywhere, and it never becomes comparable by being rounded, relabelled or put on a slide next to one. An incomplete numeratorA numerator that leaves out costs which exist in reality but are not recorded, which forbids calling the result a profit measure. produces a perfectly valid ratio of an incomplete quantity, and the validity of the ratio is exactly what makes it easy to misuse.

The most common failure in practice is not an arithmetic error but a figure walking from one conversation into another with its terms left behind. Quote 33.8 per cent to somebody who computes on total capital and they hear 24.8 per cent. Quote it to somebody who expects operating costs in the numerator and they hear a number that is wildly too high. The figure is not wrong; it is unlabelled, and an unlabelled fraction is not a measurement, it is a rumour with a decimal point.

WHAT A PROFIT MEASURE WOULD NEED, AND WHAT THIS RECORD ACTUALLY HAS Three of the five lines do not exist anywhere in the invented case, so they cannot be estimated either. Net interest income IN THIS RECORD Rs 2,880 crore Fee and commission income NOT IN THIS RECORD no figure exists Operating expenses NOT IN THIS RECORD no figure exists Credit cost, the loss charge IN THIS RECORD Rs 648 crore Tax charge NOT IN THIS RECORD no figure exists WHAT CAN BE BUILT: Rs 2,880 crore less Rs 648 crore = Rs 2,232 crore WHAT IT CANNOT BE CALLED: profit, a return on equity, or comparable with any published figure Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited is invented and this list describes the invented record, not any real institution.
Three of the five lines a profit measure needs simply do not exist in this record, which is what forbids calling the result profit.
Try it out

Can this Rs 2,232 crore over Rs 7,680 crore of equity be called a return on equity?

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What has to travel with the number for it to mean anything?

Four things, and all four fit on one line. The numerator, stated as the arithmetic rather than the label. The denominator, stated as a figure and a name. The period. And what has been excluded. Written out, that is: two thousand eight hundred and eighty less six hundred and forty eight, over six thousand six hundred, for twelve months, excluding operating expenses, fee income and tax. In figures that is 2,880 less 648 over 6,600, and anybody in the room can check it against the accounts in about four minutes.

Writing only 33.8 per cent produces a figure nobody in the room can check, disagree with usefully or reproduce next quarter. The difference between those two sentences is not rigour for its own sake. One number survives being moved between two meetings and the other quietly changes meaning on the way.

THE FOUR THINGS THAT HAVE TO TRAVEL WITH THE FIGURE All four fit on one line, and the line is checkable against the invented bank own accounts. 2,880 less 648 over 6,600, for twelve months, excluding operating expenses, fee income and tax NUMERATOR 2,880 less 648 Rs crore DENOMINATOR 6,600, tier 1 capital named, not implied PERIOD twelve months ending month 12 WHAT IS EXCLUDED operating expenses, fee income, tax 33.8 per cent Numerator? Denominator? Period? Excluded? Nobody receiving this can tell, and nobody can check it. Both cards describe the same invented computation on the same invented bank.
The same computation stated two ways: one line anybody can check against the accounts, and one figure nobody can.
Try it out

Somebody quotes a risk adjusted return of 33.8 per cent in a meeting. What are the four things to ask for?

Value at Risk and What It Hides teaches you to compute value at risk three ways, interpret the figure, and say precisely what it refuses to describe.

Who actually picks this figure up, and what do they do with it?

Four people read a risk adjusted return, and none of them reads it the way the person who built it expects.

A business head inside the institution reads it against the same measure for another business. Manjari Sondhi, who runs the wholesale book, cares whether her portfolio earns more or less for the capital it consumes than the retail book does, and she does not care at all about the level. Her only real question is whether the two were computed the same way, and if the retail figure divides by risk weighted assets while hers divides by tier 1, the comparison is worthless and no amount of care about the arithmetic rescues it.

A credit analyst at another institution, sizing up Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited as a counterparty, reads it for the trend and for what it excludes. The excluded line tells her what the figure has been built to flatter, so she has learned to read it before the number. A numerator with no operating expense in it is not dishonest, but it is not a profit measure and she will not put it beside one.

An investor is the reader most likely to mistake a risk adjusted return for a return on equity, and the harm concentrates there. Twenty nine point one per cent on equity of Rs 7,680 crore looks exactly like the sort of figure that belongs on a comparison table, and it does not belong there at all.

The mechanism does not change with scale, so there is a household version too. A person deciding whether to keep money in a recurring deposit or lend it to a cousin who runs a hardware shop is doing the same computation. The deposit pays what it pays. The cousin pays more, and some fraction of the time the cousin pays nothing. Subtracting the expected shortfall before comparing, and naming what was subtracted, builds a risk adjusted return at the scale of one household savings decision. The bank version has more zeroes and exactly the same three moving parts.

Where do the capital figures come from?

Every figure in the arithmetic above is the invented bank own computation. A real one would be read from the documents named below, and the capital figures are the only part of the measure any external body touches.

Figure used hereWhere a real one is found
Net interest income of Rs 2,880 croreThe institution own income statement for the period
Credit cost of Rs 648 croreThe charge taken to that same income statement for the same period
Expected loss of Rs 343.6 crore, and Rs 584.1 crore restatedThe institution own credit model output, grade by grade, with its own loss assumption stated beside it
Tier 1 capital, total capital and equityThe institution own capital computation and its balance sheet, on the definitions its supervisor sets
Risk weighted assets of Rs 60,000 croreThe institution own capital computation, built on the risk weights its supervisor sets
Scenario ST3 credit cost of Rs 1,944 croreThe institution own stress testing pack, where the scenario is defined
India

What is named here, and where the binding version lives

No external body prescribes a risk adjusted return measure, so there is nothing to cite for the measure itself. A risk adjusted return is a fraction an institution builds for its own management purposes, and the discipline around it is craft rather than requirement.

External bodies do supply the denominator. The framework in which a risk weighted asset figure or a tier 1 capital layer exists at all originates with the Basel Committee at the Bank for International Settlements, at bis.org. The Reserve Bank of India, at rbi.org.in, decides what an Indian bank must actually hold, how each layer is defined and how risk weighted assets are computed.

The 11.0 per cent internal total capital floor used in the arithmetic above is the invented bank's own choice, not a supervisory minimum. No supervisor prescribes the measure at all, so no supervisor sets a level at which a risk adjusted return becomes good or adequate.

The capital computation, the construction of risk weighted assets from credit, market and operational risk, and what capital an institution must hold are covered separately: the Rs 6,600 crore, Rs 9,000 crore, Rs 7,680 crore and Rs 60,000 crore are taken as inputs. The expected loss product, the probability of default and the loss given default, along with the unreconciled pair of a 40.0 per cent assumption before default against 68.0 per cent coverage after one, belong to the credit and counterparty risk sequence and are used here as given. Scenario ST3 is defined elsewhere. Return on equity, the cost of capital and the capital structure decision belong to corporate finance entirely, and are named here only in order to say that this figure is not one of them.

Sources

SourceDocumentSite
Bank for International SettlementsThe Basel Committee framework that is the origin of the capital layers and of the risk weighted asset measure used as a denominator herebis.org
Reserve Bank of IndiaWhat actually binds an Indian bank on capital: which layers count, how risk weighted assets are computed and what must be heldrbi.org.in
Ministry of Corporate AffairsThe Companies Act requirements on the financial statements from which an income figure and an equity figure would be readmca.gov.in
Institute of Chartered Accountants of IndiaThe accounting and assurance standards behind a reported income and provision figureicai.org

Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited and Manjari Sondhi are invented.
Educational material. Not advice on any investment, tax, budget or market position.

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