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Risk Management Program · CoreTrack
1Risk, Treasury & Financial Control
iRisk Foundations
Risk Appetite, Tolerance, Capacity…The Risk Taxonomy and UniverseRisk Register vs Risk MatrixStress TestingScenario Analysis vs Stress TestingImpact and LikelihoodLikelihoodThe Risk EventRisk Assessment
iiEnterprise Risk Management
Enterprise Risk ManagementThe Four Risk TreatmentsRisk CultureRisk MaturityRisk Monitoring
iiiRisk Governance
Risk GovernanceHow to set a…The Risk PolicyThe Risk OwnerThe Risk Committee and Its CharterThe Risk Limit FrameworkRisk EscalationHow to set a…
ivCredit and Counterparty Risk
Collateral AgreementsCollateral vs NettingProbability of DefaultExposureCounterparty ExposureConcentration Risk vs Wrong Way RiskCounterparty Risk vs Credit RiskHow to assess Counterparty ExposureHow to assess Concentration Risk
vMarket Risk
Market RiskSensitivity MeasuresThe Hedging PolicyInterest Rate Risk in the Banking BookIRRBB vs Market RiskExpected ShortfallEconomic Value of EquityVaR BacktestingOpen PositionValue at RiskValue at Risk and Expected ShortfallEconomic Value SensitivityFX ExposureValue at Risk vs Expected ShortfallEarnings at Risk vs…FX Transaction Risk vs…How to measure Interest…How to measure Foreign…
viLiquidity Risk
Liquidity Stress TestingLiquidity Gap vs Liquidity BufferMaturity MismatchThe Debt Maturity ProfileFunding ConcentrationSurvival HorizonThe Contingency Funding PlanNet Stable Funding RatioLiquidity Risk vs Funding RiskLiquidity Coverage RatioLiquidity Gap and BufferHow to run a Liquidity Gap Analysis
viiOperational Risk
Operational LossThe Loss EventRisk and Control Self AssessmentException ManagementInformation Security as a…Segregation of DutiesIssue ManagementThe Near MissRoot Cause Analysis in RiskThe Fraud TriangleCyber Risk vs Third Party RiskHow to run a…How to assess Third…
viiiRisk Reporting, Data and Model Risk
Model RiskModel Validation vs BacktestingHow to run Model ValidationData Governance in RiskModel Risk vs Data RiskKey Risk IndicatorsManagement InformationRisk ReportingRisk ScoreEarnings at RiskRisk Adjusted ReturnEarly Warning IndicatorsHow to build a KRI Dashboard
ixTreasury
Corporate TreasuryAsset Liability ManagementIntragroup FundingThe Treasury PolicyThe Treasury Management SystemThe Cash ForecastCash Pooling and ConcentrationHow to build a Cash Forecast
xFinancial Controls and Assurance
Control AssuranceThe Control LifecycleThe Assurance MapThe Audit FindingIssue RemediationInternal Financial ControlsControl Design vs Control EffectivenessHow to map Internal Financial ControlsHow to test Control…Control DeficiencyMaterial Weakness
xiOperational Resilience
Operational ResilienceBusiness Continuity and Disaster RecoveryBusiness Continuity vs Operational…Crisis ManagementDisaster RecoveryIncident Management

How to assess Counterparty Exposure: A Seven Step Method

Seven steps in a fixed order. Each step produces what the next one needs. Settle which legal entities count as one counterparty, convert every arrangement into a figure, net only where an agreement is enforceable, add the potential future exposure, apply collateral to severity, measure against the limit, then record what could not be measured. On C1 that runs Rs 1,680 crore to Rs 2,160 crore to Rs 2.20 crore of expected loss.

Every part this method assembles is already familiar: what a charge over stock does to severity, what a netting agreement does to two contracts pointing opposite ways, what a probability of default is, and how current exposure, potential future exposure and exposure at default differ from one another. The one thing not yet given is the order in which those parts are picked up, and the order is not a filing convenience. The order is the method.

Everything that follows runs on one name at one bank. Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited, an invented lender, has assessed its counterparty C1, the invented Nirjhar Industries Limited, and every rupee figure, assumption and factor below belongs to those two. Each of those factors, haircuts and caps is that bank's own choice rather than a threshold anybody imposed on it, and another bank would set them differently.

What is the order, and why does the order decide the answer?

The shape of the problem, before any arithmetic. A counterparty is not one thing that can be looked up. A counterparty is instead a set of legal entities that somebody has to decide belong together, holding a set of arrangements that arrive in different states of certainty, some of which can be set against each other and some of which cannot, secured by property whose value is a judgement, measured against a cap that was set on one definition of exposure and is often reported on another. Every one of those is a decision, and every decision changes the number that comes out.

The everyday version comes first because the shape is exactly the same. Suppose a lender has lent money to a cousin who runs a small trading business. How much is owed? The first question is whether the loan given to the cousin's brother-in-law for the same shop counts as the same debt, and that decision is the perimeterThe decision about which legal entities count as one counterparty, taken before any figure is added. question. Then what has actually gone out of the lender's hand is counted against what has been promised if the cousin asks. Then the lender remembers that the cousin is owed something in return, and has to ask whether anyone would honour that set-off if things went badly. Only then does the gold the cousin left behind come into it, and only after that does the running total get held up against whatever line the lender privately set. Changing the order of those questions produces a different answer to the same question. The order is the method rather than a matter of taste.

SEVEN STEPS, AND EVERY ONE PRODUCES THE INPUT THE NEXT ONE NEEDS Read the right hand column downwards and it chains. Run any step before the one above it and the chain breaks silently. STEP WHAT IT DOES WHAT IT NEEDS FIRST WHAT IT PRODUCES EA1 settle the perimeter who is this counterparty the lending record and the group structure behind the borrower C1 alone, or C1 with the subsidiary Rs 2,496 crore or Rs 3,168 crore EA2 convert every facility drawn, promised, contracted the entities EA1 admitted, and the bank's own drawdown assumption Rs 2,040 crore, with two contracts still to be settled EA3 apply netting only where an agreement covers it a legal opinion, which is not a calculation anybody can run current exposure Rs 96 crore running figure Rs 2,136 crore EA4 add the add-on the potential future exposure the notional and the bank's own add-on factor add-on Rs 24 crore exposure at default Rs 2,160 crore EA5 apply collateral to severity, never to exposure the completed exposure produced by EA4, and not a running figure loss given default 22.67 per cent expected loss Rs 2.20 crore EA6 measure against the limit and say what it was measured on the exposure, and the limit that the counterparty runs against 94.5 per cent and 81.8 per cent, each written with what it is on EA7 record the gaps what could not be measured at all every judgement taken in the six steps above it three gaps, written down and read as part of the answer Every figure in the right hand column belongs to the invented Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited and its invented counterparty C1. No step here is a requirement and no factor used in any of them is a regulatory number.
Each of the seven steps needs something the step above it produced, so the running exposure chains from the entity decision through Rs 2,040 crore, Rs 2,136 crore and Rs 2,160 crore before collateral, the limit and the written gaps are ever reached.

The middle column of that drawing matters more than the right one. Every step needs something that only the step above it can hand over, and none of those handovers is optional. Netting before the entities are settled nets a contract belonging to a company that turns out not to be inside this assessment at all. Dividing collateral into the exposure before the exposure is finished divides it into the wrong denominator. Writing a utilisation before stating what it was measured on produces a percentage that nobody can line up against any other paper about the same name on the same day. None of those three mistakes produces an error message, a mismatch or a failed check: each one produces a number that looks finished.

Try it out

On C1 the exposure builds Rs 1,680 crore, then Rs 2,040 crore, then Rs 2,136 crore, then Rs 2,160 crore. Before the how: how many of those four moves rest on a figure that could be checked against something outside the bank?

Derivatives Foundation Bootcamp — Fin Maverick

Which legal entities are one counterparty, and who decides that?

Step EA1 is the only step in the method that adds nothing and changes everything. Step EA1 answers one question: which legal entities are being assessed together as one counterparty. On this name the answer is not obvious. C1 is Nirjhar Industries Limited, a steel and alloys maker. Nirjhar Alloys Private Limited is a wholly owned subsidiary of it and borrows from the same bank, and it is a separate legal person with its own board, its own accounts and its own agreements. The bank reports it inside the group line rather than as a single name, so on the single name list of ten largest exposures it does not appear at all.

Assessed as a single name, C1 carries funded exposure of Rs 1,680 crore, an undrawn committed line of Rs 720 crore and derivative current exposure of Rs 96 crore. The reported total is Rs 2,496 crore, and 1,680 plus 720 plus 96 is 2,496. Assessed as a borrower group, add Nirjhar Alloys Private Limited at funded 660, undrawn 12 and derivative nothing, being Rs 672 crore, and the total is Rs 3,168 crore. The two totals run against different caps: limit L1 on single name exposure is 40.0 per cent of tier 1 capital of Rs 6,600 crore, being Rs 2,640 crore, and limit L2 on borrower group exposure is 60.0 per cent of the same, being Rs 3,960 crore. Both limits are the invented bank's own.

THE SAME BORROWER, TWO PERIMETERS, TWO LIMITS, TWO ANSWERS Each frame is the whole of the limit. The filled part is what is running against it at month 12. ASSESSED AS A SINGLE NAME, AGAINST LIMIT L1 OF Rs 2,640 CRORE funded Rs 1,680 crore undrawn Rs 720 crore derivative current exposure Rs 96 crore 94.5 PER CENT of limit L1 headroom Rs 144 crore ASSESSED AS A BORROWER GROUP, AGAINST LIMIT L2 OF Rs 3,960 CRORE C1 Nirjhar Industries Limited, Rs 2,496 crore Nirjhar Alloys Private Limited, Rs 672 crore 80.0 PER CENT of limit L2 headroom Rs 792 crore The Rs 3,168 crore figure appears on no single name report at all until somebody decides that both entities are one counterparty. Both limits and both totals belong to the invented Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited. Neither is a regulatory figure. Ranked on funded exposure alone, Nirjhar Alloys Private Limited at Rs 660 crore would sit ninth on the top ten single name list.
The perimeter decision moves the answer from Rs 2,496 crore against a Rs 2,640 crore cap to Rs 3,168 crore against a Rs 3,960 crore cap, and the second figure exists on no report until somebody takes the decision.

Read the two bars as two different claims about the world rather than as two views of one claim. The upper bar says the bank has one borrower carrying Rs 2,496 crore. The lower one says it has one economic obligor carrying Rs 3,168 crore across two legal persons that share a controlling shareholder, a management and, in all likelihood, a cash position. No arithmetic step later in this method moves the answer by anything close to the Rs 672 crore that this single decision moves it by, and this step involves no arithmetic at all. The size of that move is why the entity decision goes first, and why an assessment that starts by pulling the list of arrangements has already answered the hardest question by accident.

Try it out

Why does the first step come before any arithmetic at all?

How does each arrangement become an exposure figure?

Step EA2 lists every facilityOne arrangement between the bank and the counterparty, of which a counterparty usually has several. the admitted entities hold and turns each one into a rupee figure. The reason this is a step rather than a lookup is that the arrangements are in three completely different states, and each state needs a different kind of work. ConversionTurning a facility into an exposure figure, which is a reading for what is drawn and a judgement for everything else. is a reading for one of them and a judgement for the other two.

The first state is drawn. C1 has Rs 1,680 crore of funded exposure, meaning money that has already left the bank and is sitting on the borrower's side of the table. The funded balance is read out of the record and nothing is decided about it. The second state is promised. C1 holds an undrawn committed line of Rs 720 crore. The bank has bound itself to provide that money on request, and nobody has asked for it yet. Nobody knows how much of it would be drawn if the borrower were sliding towards default, so the bank applies its own drawdown assumption of 50.0 per cent, giving Rs 360 crore, and 720 times 0.50 is 360. The 50.0 per cent drawdown assumption is the invented bank's own number and it is a choice, not a reading. The third state is contracted: two derivative trades with the same counterparty, one worth plus Rs 132 crore to the bank and one worth minus Rs 36 crore. The two trades need a valuation before they need anything else.

Two of the three states produce a figure that somebody chose, and only the drawn balance produces one that somebody read. Add the two settled parts and the running figure after EA2 is 1,680 plus 360, being Rs 2,040 crore, with the contracts still open. The drawdown assumption is worth pausing on. A committed line that is never drawn costs nothing; a committed line drawn to the last rupee in the month before a default costs everything, and the honest answer sits somewhere between. Halving it is not a discovery about C1. The halving is a policy the bank applies to every name and then reports as though it were a measurement of this one.

Debt Capital Markets Bootcamp — Fin Maverick

When may two contracts be set against each other?

Step EA3 is where the method stops being arithmetic for a moment. Two trades sit against one counterparty. One is worth plus Rs 132 crore to the bank and one is worth minus Rs 36 crore. If the counterparty fails tomorrow, does the bank stand in the queue for Rs 132 crore or for Rs 96 crore? The arithmetic is trivial in both directions. 132 minus 36 is 96, and 132 on its own is 132. The question is which of those two the law would honour, and the answer sits in a document rather than in the numbers.

The bank has an enforceable netting agreementAn agreement that would actually be honoured on default, which is a legal opinion and not a calculation. covering both trades with C1, so the current exposure is Rs 96 crore, a reduction of 27.3 per cent on the gross figure, and 36 over 132 is 0.2727. Without such an agreement it would be Rs 132 crore. A trade that is out of the money gives the bank nothing at all in a default: the administrator collects on it, and the bank still queues for the other one. Nothing in the two values shows which of those two worlds applies, and an assessment that nets because netting is arithmetically available has answered a legal question with a subtraction.

A LEGAL TEST WITH AN ARITHMETIC CONSEQUENCE The two trade values are identical on both branches. Only the document differs, and the document decides the figure. TWO TRADES, ONE COUNTERPARTY plus Rs 132 crore and minus Rs 36 crore IS THERE AN ENFORCEABLE AGREEMENT COVERING BOTH? YES, AND IT WOULD BE HONOURED ON A DEFAULT current exposure Rs 96 crore exposure at default Rs 2,160 crore utilisation of limit L1 on that footing, 81.8 per cent NO, OR NOBODY HAS ASKED A LAWYER current exposure Rs 132 crore exposure at default Rs 2,196 crore utilisation of limit L1 on that footing, 83.2 per cent The Rs 36 crore difference between the two branches is decided by a document, not by anything present in the two values. Every figure here belongs to the invented Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited and its invented counterparty C1.
Two trades worth plus Rs 132 crore and minus Rs 36 crore give a current exposure of Rs 96 crore where an enforceable agreement covers them and Rs 132 crore where it does not, and nothing in the numbers themselves says which.

The running figure after EA3 is 2,040 plus 96, being Rs 2,136 crore. Notice how little of that Rs 96 crore is a measurement. The plus 132 and the minus 36 are valuations: model output on a market that moved this morning. The decision to subtract one from the other is an opinion about how a court would read a contract on a day nobody has lived through yet. The netting decision is the second of the three moves in the build that the bank made up rather than looked up.

Try it out

The two trades net to Rs 96 crore. What has to be true before the assessment may write that figure down?

Why is the add-on computed on the notional and not on the value?

Step EA4 adds the part of the exposure that has not happened yet. The Rs 96 crore is today's value of the position, and a position is not going to sit still until the contract matures. The bank adds an allowance for how far the value could travel between now and then, computed as an add-on factor of 1.5 per cent applied to a notional of Rs 1,600 crore, being Rs 24 crore. The 1.5 per cent is the invented bank's own factor and is used here purely to work the method.

The choice of base is the whole teaching point. Applying the factor to the Rs 96 crore the position is worth today gives Rs 1.44 crore. Worse, a position sitting exactly at zero today would carry an allowance of nothing, and that is a claim that a contract which has not moved yet can never move. The claim is plainly false, and it is false in the direction that hurts. The notional is the only number inside a contract that measures how much is at stake, so it is the only sensible base for an estimate of how far the value can travel. The running figure is now 2,136 plus 24, being Rs 2,160 crore, and that figure is the exposure at default. Check it the other way: funded 1,680, plus half of the undrawn line at 360, plus a derivative exposure at default of 96 plus 24 being 120, and 1,680 plus 360 plus 120 is 2,160.

Try it out

The add-on is Rs 24 crore on a Rs 1,600 crore notional. Why is it not computed on the Rs 96 crore the position is worth today?

The build in four moves, and where each one came from

Before going on to collateral, stop and look at what has just been assembled, because the four moves are not four of the same kind of thing. Rs 1,680 crore was read from a record that a third party could in principle inspect. Rs 360 crore came out of an assumption the bank wrote for itself. Rs 96 crore came out of a valuation and a legal opinion. Rs 24 crore came out of a factor the bank set. Three of the four are internal choices, and once they are added together into a single figure the difference between them disappears completely.

FOUR MOVES, FOUR DIFFERENT KINDS OF AUTHORITY The strip at the foot of each block says whether the figure could be checked against anything outside the bank. MOVE 1, THE BASE Rs 1,680 crore the funded balance, read from the record CAN BE CHECKED MOVE 2, ADD Rs 360 crore half of the undrawn Rs 720 crore line THE BANK'S OWN CHOICE MOVE 3, ADD Rs 96 crore a valuation and a legal opinion on the netting THE BANK'S OWN CHOICE MOVE 4, ADD Rs 24 crore 1.5 per cent of a Rs 1,600 crore notional THE BANK'S OWN CHOICE running Rs 1,680 crore running Rs 2,040 crore running Rs 2,136 crore Rs 2,160 crore at default OF THE Rs 480 CRORE ADDED TO THE FUNDED BALANCE, WHERE IT CAME FROM the add-on, Rs 24 crore the drawdown assumption, Rs 360 crore, being 75.0 per cent of what was added the netted contracts, 20.0 per cent Only the Rs 1,680 crore funded balance rests on something a third party could inspect. The other three are internal choices. Every figure belongs to the invented Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited and its invented counterparty C1.
Rs 1,680 crore read from a record, plus Rs 360 crore from an assumption the bank chose, plus Rs 96 crore from a valuation and a legal opinion, plus Rs 24 crore from a factor the bank set, and only the first of the four could be checked against anything outside the bank.

Where does collateral enter, and where must it never enter?

Step EA5 is where most readers want the problem to be solved, and it is the step the method is most careful about. C1 has given the bank a charge over inventory and receivables valued at Rs 1,440 crore. Stock and book debts of a steel maker sold quickly by an administrator do not fetch what they are carried at, so the bank applies its own haircut of 35.0 per cent to that valuation, giving eligible collateralCollateral value after the haircut, being what the lender is willing to count. of Rs 936 crore, and 1,440 times 0.65 is 936.

Now the part that matters. CoverageEligible collateral divided by exposure at default, which must be computed on the completed exposure and not on a running figure. is 936 over 2,160, being 43.3 per cent, and it is divided into the completed exposure at default produced by EA4 and into nothing else. Loss given default then falls from the bank's own 40.0 per cent assumption to 40.0 times 1 minus 0.4333, being 22.67 per cent. At internal grade 4 the bank's own one year probability of default is 0.45 per cent, so expected loss is 2,160 times 0.0045 times 0.2267, being Rs 2.20 crore, against 2,160 times 0.0045 times 0.40, being Rs 3.89 crore, with no collateral counted at all. The Rs 936 crore changes what a default costs and does not change what is at risk in one, so the exposure figure stays exactly at Rs 2,160 crore all the way through this step.

The same thing runs the other way, as a reduction of exposure from Rs 2,160 crore to Rs 1,224 crore at an unchanged 40.0 per cent loss given default, and 1,224 times 0.0045 times 0.40 is also Rs 2.20 crore. Both routes are correct arithmetic and both land on the same rupee. The two routes are one answer expressed twice, not two answers, and a paper that shows both without saying which it used has manufactured a disagreement out of nothing. The first route is the one taken here. The exposure figure therefore never moves.

Expected loss also fell by 43.3 per cent, from Rs 3.89 crore to Rs 2.20 crore, and 43.3 per cent is exactly the share of the exposure the collateral covers. The equality is not a coincidence and it is not a check on anything: collateral acts through loss given default, and the arithmetic makes the fall in expected loss equal to the coverage by construction. The equality is worth knowing so that it is never mistaken for a validation.

Try it out

Does the Rs 936 crore of eligible collateral change the Rs 2,160 crore exposure at default?

What no haircut can fix

There is a temptation, once collateral is on the table, to treat the haircut as the dial that decides whether this exposure is secured. The haircut is not that dial, and the fastest way to see why is to imagine the bank being maximally generous with itself. Suppose the haircut were zero, so the full Rs 1,440 crore valuation were counted. Coverage of the Rs 2,160 crore exposure at default reaches 1,440 over 2,160, being 66.7 per cent, and stops. Rs 1,440 crore of property cannot cover Rs 2,160 crore of exposure however generously it is counted, so no haircut anywhere between 0 and 100 per cent makes this collateral fully cover this exposure. Rs 720 crore of the exposure is unreachable by definition.

THE COVERAGE LINE, AND THE LINE IT NEVER REACHES Coverage is the Rs 1,440 crore charge after its haircut, divided by the Rs 2,160 crore exposure at default. FULL COVER, 100 PER CENT OF THE Rs 2,160 CRORE EXPOSURE AT DEFAULT 0 25 50 75 100 COVERAGE, PER CENT Rs 720 crore of exposure that no haircut can reach 66.7 50.0 43.3 33.3 16.7 0.0 the bank's own 35.0 per cent haircut 0 25 35 50 75 100 HAIRCUT APPLIED TO THE Rs 1,440 CRORE CHARGE, PER CENT The valuation, the haircut and the exposure are all the invented bank's own figures, and none of them is a requirement.
Even at a haircut of zero the Rs 1,440 crore charge reaches only 66.7 per cent of the Rs 2,160 crore exposure at default, so the coverage line runs down from there and touches full cover at no point on it.
Try it out

With the haircut pushed all the way to zero in the panel below, the bank counts the full Rs 1,440 crore charge. Before that: what coverage of the Rs 2,160 crore exposure at default does it reach?

Play with it

Move the haircut and watch the marker climb towards a line it cannot touch

One control: the haircut applied to C1's Rs 1,440 crore charge over inventory and receivables, from 0 to 100 per cent. The marker travels along the coverage line, the collateral bar re-scales, and the expected loss bar moves against the fixed Rs 3.89 crore it would be with no collateral counted. The default of 35.0 per cent is the invented bank's own haircut and reproduces the worked figures above exactly: eligible collateral Rs 936 crore, coverage 43.3 per cent, loss given default 22.67 per cent, expected loss Rs 2.20 crore.

NO HAIRCUTHAIRCUT 35.0 PER CENTCOUNT NOTHING
COVERAGE AGAINST HAIRCUT, WITH THE MARKER AT THE CURRENT SETTING FULL COVER, WHICH THIS LINE REACHES AT NO POINT ON IT 43.3 per cent covered haircut 0 haircut 50 haircut 100 SHARE OF THE Rs 2,160 CRORE EXPOSURE AT DEFAULT THAT THE COLLATERAL COVERS 43.3 per cent EXPECTED LOSS AGAINST THE Rs 3.89 CRORE IT WOULD BE WITH NO COLLATERAL COUNTED Rs 2.20 crore The Rs 1,440 crore valuation is held still while the haircut moves, which is a teaching simplification: in practice the two move together. The valuation, the haircut, the 40.0 per cent loss given default and the 0.45 per cent grade 4 probability are all the invented bank's own.
Eligible collateral
Rs 936 crore
Coverage
43.3 per cent
Loss given default
22.67 per cent
Expected loss
Rs 2.20 crore

At a haircut of 35.0 per cent the bank counts Rs 936 crore of collateral, covers 43.3 per cent of the Rs 2,160 crore exposure at default and expects to lose Rs 2.20 crore instead of Rs 3.89 crore.

Educational illustration. Invented figures throughout. Every valuation, haircut, probability and factor shown belongs to the invented Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited and to its equally invented counterparty C1 Nirjhar Industries Limited. Six solved points: a haircut of 0 gives eligible collateral of Rs 1,440 crore, coverage 66.7 per cent, loss given default 13.33 per cent and expected loss Rs 1.30 crore. A haircut of 25 per cent gives Rs 1,080 crore, exactly 50.0 per cent coverage, 20.00 per cent and Rs 1.94 crore. A haircut of 35 per cent, the bank's own, gives Rs 936 crore, 43.3 per cent, 22.67 per cent and Rs 2.20 crore. A haircut of 50 per cent gives Rs 720 crore, 33.3 per cent, 26.67 per cent and Rs 2.59 crore. A haircut of 75 per cent gives Rs 360 crore, 16.7 per cent, 33.33 per cent and Rs 3.24 crore. A haircut of 100 per cent gives nothing, 0.0 per cent, 40.00 per cent and Rs 3.89 crore. Rs 1,440 crore of collateral cannot cover Rs 2,160 crore of exposure however it is counted, so the coverage line touches full cover at no haircut at all.
Equity Research Bootcamp — Fin Maverick

How is the result measured against a limit without misleading anybody?

Step EA6 puts the answer beside the cap, and it is the shortest step with the largest scope for confusion. Limit L1 on single name exposure is Rs 2,640 crore. There are two entirely defensible figures to put against it. The reported total from the counterparty table is Rs 2,496 crore, or 94.5 per cent of the limit, and 2,496 over 2,640 is 0.94545. The exposure at default this method just built is Rs 2,160 crore, or 81.8 per cent, and 2,160 over 2,640 is 0.81818. The two are 12.7 percentage points apart on one name on one day.

Both are right. The two figures differ because one counts the undrawn line in full and the other counts half of it, and because one carries derivative current exposure while the other carries a derivative exposure at default including the add-on. So step EA6 writes both, and writes each one with its basisWhich definition of exposure a utilisation was measured on, without which the percentage cannot be reconciled to any other paper. in the same line as the percentage rather than in a note at the foot of the paper. A percentage with no statement of what it was measured on is not a conservative figure or an aggressive one, it is an unreconcilable one, and the reader who holds a different paper about the same name on the same day cannot tell whether the two documents disagree or agree.

ONE NAME, ONE LIMIT, ONE DAY, TWO UTILISATIONS THAT ARE BOTH CORRECT Each frame is the whole of limit L1. What differs is which figure was put inside it. LIMIT L1, SINGLE NAME EXPOSURE, Rs 2,640 CRORE, THE INVENTED BANK'S OWN measured on the reported total of Rs 2,496 crore 94.5 per cent measured on the exposure at default of Rs 2,160 crore 81.8 per cent 12.7 percentage points apart, and both are right A percentage with no statement of what it was measured on cannot be reconciled to any other paper about the same name on the same day. Limit L1 is the invented bank's own operating cap and is not a regulatory figure.
Measured on the reported total of Rs 2,496 crore the utilisation is 94.5 per cent, and measured on the exposure at default of Rs 2,160 crore it is 81.8 per cent, so an assessment writes both with what each one is on.
Try it out

Why does step EA6 write two utilisations rather than deciding which one is the right one?

What should the assessment say about what it could not measure?

Step EA7 produces no number at all, and it is the step most often left out. The assessment has now produced Rs 2,160 crore of exposure at default and Rs 2.20 crore of expected loss, both to the second decimal place, both looking like measurements. Three of the inputs behind them are nothing of the kind, and step EA7 writes each one down as a named gapSomething the assessment could not measure, recorded explicitly, because an assessment silent about its gaps is read as complete. rather than dissolving them into a paragraph of caveats that nobody reads twice.

Frank Knight drew the line this step depends on in Risk, Uncertainty and Profit, published in 1921: a measurable risk, where the distribution is known well enough to be worked with, is a different object from an uncertainty, where it is not. Every one of the three gaps below is on the second side of that line, and the reason for writing them separately is that arithmetic has no way of expressing the difference. Rs 2.20 crore looks exactly as solid whether the inputs behind it were measured or guessed.

SECTION 7 OF THE ASSESSMENT: WHAT THIS PAPER COULD NOT MEASURE Three lines, written out, not folded into a caveat paragraph at the foot of the paper. G1 the netting agreement is enforceable That is an opinion about how a document would be read on a day nobody has lived through. Nothing inside the Rs 96 crore says whether it holds. WHAT IT ACTUALLY IS a legal opinion G2 the charge is worth Rs 1,440 crore That figure is exactly as old as the last valuation date and no younger. Between valuations, the number is a memory rather than a reading. WHAT IT ACTUALLY IS an old reading G3 the probability of default is 0.45 per cent That is the bank's own grade 4 figure, carried by every name sitting in grade 4. It is not an estimate built for this borrower. WHAT IT ACTUALLY IS a grade average Three lines at the end of the paper are what stop the Rs 2.20 crore being read as a precise number.
Three things the assessment on C1 could not measure, written out as named lines: netting enforceability is a legal opinion, the Rs 1,440 crore valuation is as old as its last valuation date, and the 0.45 per cent probability belongs to grade 4 rather than to this borrower.

Silence is indistinguishable from confidence on a sheet of numbers, so an assessment that stays quiet about what it could not measure is read as complete, whatever it says elsewhere. Notice what step EA7 is not. Step EA7 is not a disclaimer but a list. A disclaimer protects the writer and a list informs the reader. A disclaimer says the figures may be wrong. A list says exactly where, exactly why, and exactly what kind of thing would have to change for the number to move.

Try it out

What are the three things this assessment records that it could not measure?

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What is the small error that runs the same way every time?

Collateral applied one step too early, and why nobody catches it

Here is the mistake, and it is not a careless one. An assessor runs EA1, EA2 and EA3, arrives at a running figure of Rs 2,136 crore, sees the collateral sitting there in the file and applies it. The add-on has not been added yet. Nothing complains, and nothing can: Rs 936 crore divided by Rs 2,136 crore is a perfectly valid division.

The results come out almost right, and being almost right is what makes them survive. Coverage comes out at 43.8 per cent instead of 43.3 per cent, and 936 over 2,136 is 0.43820. Loss given default comes out at 22.47 per cent instead of 22.67 per cent. Expected loss, computed on the same short running figure, comes out at 2,136 times 0.0045 times 0.2247, being Rs 2.16 crore instead of Rs 2.20 crore. Four paise on a figure in crore. Nobody is going to spot that in a committee paper.

But look at the direction. The denominator is short by exactly the add-on, so coverage is always too high, so severity is always too low, so expected loss is always understated. The mistake is not wrong by a random amount in a random direction, but by a small amount in the same direction on every single name it is made on, and that makes it a bias rather than a rounding difference. And the reason it survives review is the cruellest part: the reviewer recomputes it, gets the same answer, and ticks it. The reviewer is running the same steps in the same wrong order.

THE SAME COLLATERAL, TWO DENOMINATORS, AND THE ERROR HAS A DIRECTION Only the exposure the Rs 936 crore is divided into differs between the two columns. WRONG ORDER, EA5 BEFORE EA4 RIGHT ORDER, EA5 AFTER EA4 the exposure it is divided into Rs 2,136 crore, still running Rs 2,160 crore, completed collateral coverage 43.8 per cent 43.3 per cent loss given default 22.47 per cent 22.67 per cent expected loss Rs 2.16 crore Rs 2.20 crore A ROUNDING DIFFERENCE SCATTERS. A BIAS STACKS. An illustration of the shape of the two kinds of error, not measured magnitudes for any name. NO ERROR A ROUNDING DIFFERENCE THIS ERROR, ON EVERY NAME Coverage divided into a short denominator is always too high, so every mark lands on the same side of zero. The two columns above are the invented bank's own figures worked both ways.
Coverage on the running Rs 2,136 crore figure is 43.8 per cent against 43.3 per cent on the completed Rs 2,160 crore exposure, and because the denominator is always short by the add-on the error lands on the same side of zero every time.
Try it out

An assessment computes collateral coverage on the running figure of Rs 2,136 crore instead of the completed Rs 2,160 crore. How wrong is it, and in which direction?

Collateral applied one step early understates the exposure. See where it belongs.

What can this method not do at all?

Two things, and both are worth stating plainly because a method that is not honest about its edges gets used past them. The first appears on the coverage line: this method cannot make Rs 1,440 crore of collateral cover Rs 2,160 crore of exposure at any haircut, and no amount of care in EA5 changes that. The remedy for a shortfall of Rs 720 crore is more collateral, less exposure or a different price for the risk, and none of those is an assessment step. The remedy is a lending decision, and it belongs to somebody else.

The second is narrower and catches people out more often. Step EA4 has nothing to multiply the add-on factor by when a contract has no notional, so this method cannot compute an exposure at default for that contract. A guarantee with no stated cap, a commitment expressed as a facility to be agreed, an obligation whose size depends on a future event: each of those breaks the fourth step, and the honest response is to record it in step EA7 as something that could not be measured rather than to substitute the current value and call it finished. A method that fails loudly on the arrangements it cannot handle is safer than one that produces a plausible figure for every input it is given.

Who actually runs this, and what do they do with the answer?

Inside the invented bank, an assessment of this shape is the working paper behind a lending decision. Manjari Sondhi, who runs wholesale banking, needs it because she is asking to lend more to a borrower already at 94.5 per cent of limit L1, and the paper tells her that the request has Rs 144 crore of room on the reported footing and rather more on the exposure at default footing, and that which of those the credit risk management committee treats as binding decides whether the request is even in scope. Sunanda Ravikumar, the chief risk officer, reads the same paper for step EA7. The three gaps are the only part of it that tells her how much weight the Rs 2.20 crore can carry.

An analyst at another lender looking at Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited as a counterparty rather than as an institution reads it differently again. The interesting number is not the exposure, it is the perimeter decision: whether Rs 3,168 crore of exposure to one economic obligor is being reported as one number or as two. A bank that reports it as two has a concentration it can describe in a way that sounds smaller than it is. And a lender in a completely different business runs the same seven steps without knowing it. A jeweller who lends against gold asks whose debt this is, what has gone out against what was promised, whether the customer is owed anything back, what the ornament fetches in a distress sale, and whether the total has crossed the line he privately set. The steps do not change with the size of the balance sheet.

The household version is the sharpest test of understanding for step EA5. Suppose a person has lent Rs 3,00,000/- to a relative and holds Rs 1,30,000/- of that relative's gold as security. How much is at risk? Rs 3,00,000/- is at risk, and what the gold changes is how much of the Rs 3,00,000/- comes back if the worst happens. Nobody who has actually been in that position confuses the two, and the reason a professional assessment gets it wrong is precisely that the numbers arrive in a spreadsheet rather than in a room.

India

What is named here, and where the binding version lives

The seven steps are a teaching structure rather than a requirement, and every rupee figure, haircut, drawdown assumption, add-on factor, probability and limit belongs to the invented Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited and its invented counterparty C1.

Where an international standard sits behind a step, it comes from the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision at the Bank for International Settlements, bis.org. The Basel Committee publishes the current exposure method that step EA4 follows in outline and the credit risk mitigation framework that step EA5 follows in outline. The Reserve Bank of India at rbi.org.in settles what an Indian bank must actually compute: which collateral it may recognise, which netting agreements it may rely on, what conversion applies to an undrawn commitment, and what caps a single name or a borrower group. Every factor, haircut, conversion figure, eligibility rule, exposure cap and effective date that actually binds a bank carries a circular number and a date, and both of those move. The binding version is whatever stands on the regulator's own site on the day the assessment is written.

Treating this order of steps as a compliance procedure would be a mistake in both directions: it carries no regulatory authority, and a bank that ran it faithfully could still be short of what actually binds it.

What a collateral agreement is and how a haircut works as an object, netting as a technique set beside collateral, how a probability of default is estimated from a rating scale, and the definitions of current exposure, potential future exposure and exposure at default are each covered separately, and this method takes them as inputs. Concentration across names, groups and sectors is a separate method of its own and this one assesses a single counterparty. Wrong way risk is treated separately and is a different object from concentration. Who sets limit L1, who may approve an excess against it and how an escalation runs belong to the governance treatment. Whether the add-on model or the haircut model has ever been validated belongs to model risk. What a swap, a forward, an option or a bond is belongs elsewhere entirely and is covered separately.
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Sources

SourceDocumentSite
Bank for International SettlementsThe Basel Committee standards behind counterparty credit risk measurement, including the current exposure method and the credit risk mitigation frameworkbis.org
Reserve Bank of IndiaWhat actually binds a bank in India on large exposures, credit risk mitigation, eligible collateral, netting recognition and the treatment of undrawn commitmentsrbi.org.in
Indian Banks AssociationOperational convention on documentation and security creation used by banks in Indiaiba.org.in
Frank KnightRisk, Uncertainty and Profit, 1921, for the separation of measurable risk from unmeasurable uncertainty drawn on in step EA7ssrn.com

Vindhya Commercial Bank Limited, Nirjhar Industries Limited, Nirjhar Alloys Private Limited, Manjari Sondhi and Sunanda Ravikumar are invented.
Educational material. Not advice on any investment, tax, budget or market position.

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