Case 010Leveraged finance and LBO financingHard
A Rs 2,000 crore term loan B for Pravinta Cables launches at benchmark plus 400 at 99.5. Commitments reach Rs 1,700 crore, and another Rs 900 crore appears at plus 425 at 99.0. The flex allows 50 basis points. Do you flex, and what is left on the bank's books either way?
1The situation
Your bank has underwritten a Rs 2,000 crore term loan BAn institutional term loan with little amortisation before maturity, sold mainly to loan funds rather than banks. for Pravinta Cables' buyout and now has to sell it to institutional investors. The loan launched at a margin of 400 basis points over the benchmark with an issue price of 99.5. The underwriting fee is 2%, Rs 40 crore.
At launch terms, commitments total Rs 1,700 crore. Investors say another Rs 900 crore would come in at 425 over at 99.0. The commitment letter lets the arrangers raise the margin by up to 50 basis points at the borrower's cost, but any discount deeper than 99.5 comes out of the arrangers' fee. If the bank holds unsold loans, the desk expects to sell them later at about 97 seven times in ten, and at about 94 if the market weakens. Convert discounts to a yearly figure over a three-year expected life.
2Your task
Decide whether to flex, show what the bank holds in each case, and weigh the cost of each path.
Quick check
If you do not flex, what does the bank end up holding?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
Flex to 425 at 99.0: the book grows to Rs 2,600 crore, the bank holds nothing, and the cost is a certain Rs 10 crore of fee. Not flexing leaves Rs 300 crore on the books, with an expected sale loss of about Rs 10.2 crore and a range up to Rs 16.5 crore. On average the two are close, so the tail and the capital tied up decide it. Pravinta pays about Rs 5 crore a year more in margin.
Step 1What is flex, and who pays for it?
A wholesaler who promises a shop a fixed price for goods he has not yet bought is exposed if his own supplier raises prices. He protects himself by writing in a clause that lets him pass part of the rise on. Market flexA clause in the commitment letter that lets the arranging banks change pricing or terms, within set limits, so the loan can be sold to investors. is that clause: it lets the arrangers move the pricing so the loan clears, with the margin change paid by the borrower and, here, any extra discount paid out of the banks' fee. The margin can move up to 50 basis points; this case needs only 25.
Step 2How do you compare terms with different margins and prices?
Put them on one yearly number. A price of 99.5 means investors pay 99.5 and get back 100, so the half point is spread over a three-year expected life, about 17 basis points a year. Launch terms are worth about 417 basis points a year to an investor and flexed terms about 458, a 42 basis point improvement that brings Rs 900 crore more demand.
Step 3What does each path cost the bank?
Flexing moves the price from 99.5 to 99.0. Half a point on Rs 2,000 crore is Rs 10 crore, a quarter of the Rs 40 crore fee, paid with certainty. Not flexing leaves Rs 300 crore to sell later. At 97 the loss is 2.5 points, Rs 7.5 crore; at 94 it is 5.5 points, Rs 16.5 crore. Weighted seven to three, the expected loss is Rs 10.2 crore, almost exactly the fee given up.
Step 4If the averages are equal, what decides it?
Three things the averages leave out. A held loan uses the bank's capital and its limit for this borrower, the losses on holding are skewed to the bad side, and a hung dealA loan or bond the underwriting banks could not sell at the agreed terms and must keep on their books. in a weakening market often gets worse, not better. Flexing also buys a 1.3x covered book, which lets you allocate to steady loan funds and shade the flex if orders hold. Against that, Pravinta pays about Rs 5 crore a year more in margin, a cost worth naming to the sponsor. The view: flex to 425 at 99.0, scale allocations to about 77%, and hold nothing.
Where candidates lose it
The usual miss is treating flex as free to the bank because the margin is paid by the borrower. Here the deeper discount comes out of the arrangers' fee, and ignoring that makes flexing look like an easy win.
The other is comparing only the expected costs and calling it a tie. The reason banks flex is the tail: an unsold position in a falling market is where arrangers lose far more than a fee.
What the interviewer asks next
- With a Rs 2,600 crore book, could you flex only the margin and keep the price at 99.5?
- What is reverse flex, and would you use it here?
- How would the answer change if the commitment letter said all flex came from the borrower?
- What are the two main types of loans in the broadly syndicated market, and which is this?
Asked at Scotiabank, Debt Capital Markets, New York, 2026 (Wall Street Oasis): Walk me through the syndication process. Tell me about the two different types of loans in the BSL.
Company names and figures are illustrative.
