Debt Capital Markets interview preparation

Questions

100

Traced to a firm

45

Firms

26

Updated

September 2026

Asked at

All firmsTSTruist Securities5PIMCO4TD Securities4Apollo Global Management3Nomura3Scotiabank3Bain Capital2Houlihan Lokey2Mizuho2Neuberger Berman2Oaktree Capital Management2RCRBC Capital Markets2Carlyle Group1Deutsche Bank1Golub Capital1HPS Investment Partners1Invesco1KKR1Lazard1Moelis & Company1Moody's1Northern Trust1NUNuveen1Rothschild & Co1S&P Global1Wells Fargo Securities1

Topic

All topicsBond mechanics11Duration and convexity6Yield curve and rates5Credit spreads5Credit analysis and ratings13Credit modelling9Primary issuance9Syndication and loans10Structured credit7Covenants and documentation5Liability management5Indian debt markets7Fit8

Level

AnyCoreIntermediateHard

Type

AnyTechnicalBrainteaserMarket viewCaseFit

1. 012What is duration, explained the way you would explain it to a client?Duration and convexityCorephone / first roundPIMCODebt Capital Markets · San Diego · 2026

   Say this

   Duration is how much your bond's price moves for a one percent change in yields. A duration of 7 means roughly a 7 percent price fall if yields rise 100 basis points. Underneath, it is the weighted average time until you get your money back.

   Then walk it

   1. Two readings of the same number. Macaulay duration is a time: the present-value-weighted average years to the cash flows, quoted in years. Modified duration is a sensitivity: the percentage price change per 100 basis points.
   2. Modified equals Macaulay divided by one plus the periodic yield, so for normal yields they are close, and people use the words loosely. Say which one you mean.
   3. What makes duration long: long maturity, low coupon, low yield. All three push more of the present value further into the future.
   4. The client version: duration is your interest rate risk budget. A fund with duration 2 loses about 2 percent if rates rise 100 basis points. A fund with duration 15 loses about 15. Same credit, totally different instrument.
   5. It is a first-order approximation, valid for small moves. For a 200 basis point move you need convexity, which corrects the fact that the price-yield curve bends.
   6. And the framing that matters on a debt desk: duration is what a rates trader hedges and what a credit investor tries to neutralise so that what is left is the credit view.

   Where candidates lose it

   Conflating Macaulay and modified duration, or reciting 'weighted average time to cash flows' without ever saying what it is used for. A client and an interviewer both want the sensitivity first, then the definition.

   Expect next

   • So how does duration affect what happens when rates move?
   • What is DV01 and how is it different?
   • How would you reduce the duration of a portfolio?

   Reported by candidates at PIMCO (Debt Capital Markets, San Diego, 2026). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

2. 013What is DV01, and how would you actually use it on a desk?Duration and convexityIntermediatetechnicalSyndicate desksFixed income asset management

   Say this

   DV01 is the dollar change in the value of a position for a one basis point move in yield. It converts a percentage sensitivity into money, which is what you need to size a hedge.

   Then walk it

   1. The arithmetic: DV01 is roughly modified duration times market value times 0.0001. On 100 million of a bond with duration 7, that is about 70,000 dollars per basis point.
   2. Why money rather than percent: you cannot hedge a 7 percent sensitivity, you hedge 70,000 dollars a basis point. So you sell enough Treasury futures or pay enough on a swap to produce minus 70,000 a basis point.
   3. The hedge ratio is just the ratio of the two DV01s. If the cheapest-to-deliver 10-year note has a DV01 of 780 dollars per contract per basis point, you need about 90 contracts.
   4. It is also how risk limits are written. A syndicate or trading desk carrying a new issue overnight has a DV01 limit, not a duration limit, because the risk manager cares about dollars at stake.
   5. Related measures on the same logic: CS01 or spread DV01 for a one basis point move in credit spread, and that is the number a credit desk watches, because their rate risk is hedged out.
   6. The limitation: DV01 is linear and local. For large moves convexity matters, and for a callable bond DV01 itself changes as rates move, so you re-hedge rather than set and forget.

   Where candidates lose it

   Defining DV01 and stopping. The question is 'how would you use it', so give the hedge ratio. If you cannot say that the hedge is the ratio of DV01s, the answer reads as textbook.

   Expect next

   • Work out the DV01 on 250 million of a 5-duration bond.
   • What is CS01?
   • How would you hedge the rate risk on a new issue you are holding overnight?
3. 014What is convexity, and why do investors pay for it?Duration and convexityHardsuperdayFixed income asset management

   Say this

   Convexity is the curvature of the price-yield relationship — the rate at which duration itself changes as yields move. Positive convexity means you gain more when rates fall than you lose when they rise by the same amount, so it is a free asymmetry and investors pay for it in yield.

   Then walk it

   1. Duration is the first derivative, convexity the second. The price change is minus duration times the yield move, plus a half times convexity times the move squared. The squared term is always positive for a bullet bond, whichever way rates go.
   2. Concretely: a bond with duration 10 and convexity 100. Rates fall 100 basis points, you make 10 plus 0.5 percent, so 10.5. Rates rise 100, you lose 10 minus 0.5, so 9.5. That one point of asymmetry is the convexity.
   3. It matters more the bigger the move and the longer the bond. For a 30-year at low yields, convexity can be several points over a 200 basis point move, and ignoring it is a serious mispricing, not a rounding error.
   4. Because it is an asset, it is priced. Two bonds with the same duration but different convexity will not have the same yield: the more convex one yields less. Barbell versus bullet portfolio construction is exactly this trade.
   5. Negative convexity is where the money is lost. Callable bonds and mortgage-backed securities have it: as rates fall, the borrower refinances, so your upside is truncated. You are short an option and the yield is your premium.
   6. The practical honesty: a long-convexity position bleeds carry. You are paying up in yield every day for protection against a big move, and if the move never comes you underperform.

   Where candidates lose it

   Describing convexity as 'the second derivative' and leaving it there. Interviewers want the asymmetry stated in numbers, and they want to hear negative convexity named for callables and MBS, because that is where convexity actually costs people money.

   Expect next

   • Which has more convexity, a barbell or a bullet?
   • Why do mortgage-backed securities have negative convexity?
   • Who pays for convexity and who sells it?
4. 015Two bonds have the same maturity but different coupons. Which has the longer duration, and why?Duration and convexityIntermediatetechnicalFixed income asset management

   Say this

   The lower coupon bond. Duration is the present-value-weighted average time to the cash flows, and a low coupon puts proportionally more of the value in the final principal payment, which is the most distant cash flow.

   Then walk it

   1. Think of the weights. A 10-year 8 percent bond returns a lot of cash early, so the weighted average time is pulled forward. A 10-year 2 percent bond has almost all its value in the redemption at year 10.
   2. The limiting case proves it: a zero-coupon bond has no early cash flows at all, so its duration equals its maturity, which is the maximum possible for that tenor.
   3. Numbers: at a 5 percent yield, a 10-year 8 percent coupon bond has Macaulay duration around 7.1, a 4 percent coupon around 7.9, and the zero is 10.0.
   4. The same logic explains the other two drivers. Longer maturity extends the weighting, and a lower yield reduces the discounting of distant cash flows, so both lengthen duration.
   5. The practical consequence: low-coupon long-dated bonds issued in the zero-rate era carry enormous duration, which is why the 2022 rate move produced 40 percent-plus drawdowns on some sovereign long bonds.
   6. One qualification: this holds for bullets. A callable low-coupon bond may have shorter effective duration than the maths suggests, because the option truncates it.

   Where candidates lose it

   Guessing. It is a two-way question and half of candidates answer higher coupon because they think more cash flow means more sensitivity. Go back to the weighted-average-time definition and the zero-coupon limiting case, and the answer is forced.

   Expect next

   • So what is the maximum duration a 10-year bond can have?
   • What if one of them is callable?
   • Why did long sovereign bonds fall so hard in 2022?
5. 016A bond has modified duration of 7 and convexity of 60. Rates rise 150 basis points. What happens to the price, and how wrong is the duration-only answer?Duration and convexityHardtechnicalFixed income asset managementSyndicate desks

   Say this

   Duration alone says minus 10.5 percent. Convexity gives back 0.675 percent, so the estimate is about minus 9.8 percent. Duration on its own overstates the loss by roughly 68 basis points of price, and the error grows with the square of the move.

   Then walk it

   1. First term: minus duration times the yield change, so minus 7 times 0.015, which is minus 10.5 percent.
   2. Second term: half times convexity times the change squared, so 0.5 times 60 times 0.015 squared. That is 0.5 times 60 times 0.000225, which is 0.00675, or plus 0.675 percent.
   3. Net estimate about minus 9.83 percent. On 100 million of face at par that is a 9.8 million loss rather than 10.5 million — a 675,000 dollar difference from one term.
   4. Note the asymmetry: if rates had fallen 150 basis points, you would gain 10.5 plus 0.675, so 11.17 percent. Convexity helps in both directions, which is why it has value.
   5. Scale it: at a 50 basis point move the convexity term is worth only 7.5 basis points and you can ignore it. At 300 basis points it is 2.7 percent and you cannot. The error is quadratic in the move.
   6. The caveat to state: this is still a two-term Taylor expansion off a single yield. It assumes a parallel shift in the curve, and for a real portfolio you would run key-rate durations instead, because curves twist rather than shift.

   Where candidates lose it

   Dropping the one-half, or forgetting to square the yield move. Both are common and both produce an answer that is wildly wrong. Write the formula out loud before you compute, and state the units — decimals, not percentages — before you multiply.

   Expect next

   • Now do it for a 300 basis point move.
   • What if the curve steepens rather than shifts?
   • What are key rate durations?
6. 017What is spread duration, and how is it different from interest rate duration?Duration and convexityHardsuperdayCredit researchFixed income asset management

   Say this

   Spread duration measures the price change for a one percent move in the credit spread; rate duration measures it for a move in the underlying risk-free yield. For a fixed-rate bullet they are almost identical, but for a floater they are completely different.

   Then walk it

   1. The reason they usually match: price is discounted at the risk-free rate plus the spread, and a 100 basis point move in either component moves the discount rate the same amount. So for a fixed bullet, spread duration is effectively modified duration.
   2. Where they diverge is a floating rate note. Rate duration is about 0.25 years, because the coupon resets quarterly. Spread duration is the full maturity, because the fixed spread over the reference rate does not reset.
   3. That is exactly why leveraged loans and floaters are the instrument of choice for someone who wants credit risk and no duration.
   4. For a credit portfolio it is the risk number that matters. A manager running duration-hedged credit measures spread duration times notional, sometimes called DTS or duration times spread, because spread volatility scales with the level of spread.
   5. The DTS insight worth quoting: a 5-year bond at 500 basis points has roughly the same spread risk as a 10-year bond at 250. Wide credits behave like long duration credits, and a book that ignores this is badly mis-sized.
   6. Limitation: spread duration assumes a parallel shift in the spread curve, and in a credit selloff short-dated distressed paper often widens far more than long-dated, so the linear measure underestimates the tail.

   Where candidates lose it

   Saying they are the same thing. They are the same number for a fixed bullet, and radically different for a floater, a loan or a CLO note. Naming the floater case is what proves you understand why the distinction exists.

   Expect next

   • What is the spread duration of a 7-year leveraged loan?
   • What is duration times spread?
   • How would you hedge spread risk?

Firm tags come from public, anonymous candidate reports on Wall Street Oasis: strong signal, not sworn testimony. Firms are named as the places a question was reported, not as partners of Fin Maverick. Answers are written for this page to show how to think out loud; they are not scripts to recite.