Case 028Volatility tradingHard
A fund sells Satpura 50 index variance at 16 and buys variance on its ten equal-weight constituents at 28. Realised comes in at 14 for the index and 30 for each stock. What correlation was implied, what was realised, and where did the P&L come from?
1The situation
Wainganga Volatility Fund puts on a dispersion trade on the Satpura 50, treated here as an index of ten equal-weight stocks that each carry the same volatility. It sells a three-month variance swap on the index at a strike of 16 volatility points with vega notional of Rs 10 lakh per point, and buys three-month variance swaps on each of the ten stocks at a strike of 28, with vega notional of Rs 1 lakh per point on each.
Over the three months the index realises 14 volatility and every stock realises 30.
2Your task
Work out the average correlation implied by the strikes and the correlation actually realised, compute the P&L on each leg, and explain what the trade is really a bet on.
Quick check
Stocks at 28 volatility and the index at 16: roughly what average correlation between the ten stocks does that imply?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
The strikes implied an average correlation of about 0.25; the market realised about 0.13, and the trade made about Rs 39 lakh. The short index leg earned Rs 18.8 lakh because the index realised below 16, and the ten long stock legs earned Rs 20.7 lakh because each stock realised above 28. Both legs paid for the same reason: the stocks moved apart more than the index price assumed. A dispersion trade is a short correlation position.
Step 1How do you read correlation off the two strikes?
Think of ten people walking: if they all step the same way together the group moves a lot; if they step in random directions the group barely moves, though each person walks just as far. An index is the group. For ten equal-weight stocks of the same volatility, index variance equals stock variance times one tenth plus correlation times nine tenths. The one tenth is the floor the index keeps even at zero correlation, and it is the piece that trips people. At the strikes, 16 squared over 28 squared is 0.327; subtract 0.1 and divide by 0.9 to get an implied average correlationHow much the stocks move together. One means they move in step; zero means their moves are unrelated. of 0.25. Realised: 14 squared over 30 squared is 0.218, so realised correlation was 0.13.
| \sigma_I | index volatility, 16 implied or 14 realised |
| \sigma_S | single-stock volatility, 28 implied or 30 realised |
| N | number of equal-weight stocks, 10 |
| \rho | average pairwise correlation |
Step 2Where did the money come from, leg by leg?
Convert each vega notional into a variance notionalThe amount paid per point of variance. Vega notional divided by twice the strike, so the swap pays about the vega notional per volatility point near the strike. by dividing by twice the strike. The index leg, short at 16 with Rs 10 lakh of vega, is Rs 31,250 per variance point; realised 14 squared is 196 against a strike of 256, so the short earns 60 points, Rs 18.8 lakh. Each stock leg, long at 28 with Rs 1 lakh of vega, is Rs 1,786 per point; realised 900 against 784 earns 116 points, Rs 2.07 lakh, and ten of them make Rs 20.7 lakh. The total is Rs 39.5 lakh, and both legs are in profit.
Step 3What is the trade really a bet on?
Here is the test. Suppose the stocks had realised exactly 28, their strike, and correlation had still fallen to 0.13. The index would then have realised about 13.1, below 16, so the index leg would still have paid while the stock legs broke even. Run it the other way: stocks at 30 but correlation at the implied 0.25 puts the index at about 17.1, above 16, so the index leg loses roughly what the stock legs make. Single-stock volatility cancels across the two legs when they are sized to match; what is left is correlation, and the trade earns when stocks move apart more than the index price assumed. That is why dealers quote dispersion as a correlation level rather than as two volatilities.
Say the limits. The equal-weight, equal-volatility index is a classroom simplification; a real index needs each stock's weight and its own strike, and the vega sizing then has to be chosen, vega-flat as here or correlation-weighted, which changes how clean the cancellation is. The legs also do not cancel day by day: ten long variance swaps at 28 carry far more gross exposure than one short at 16, so the position has a large positive theta bill and a large gain in a crash on the stock legs. And the implied correlation of 0.25 embeds a premium: index variance usually trades rich to the single names precisely because index protection is what people buy, which is the structural reason the trade exists and the reason it bleeds when a crash lifts correlation towards one.
Where candidates lose it
The common loss is taking 16 over 28 as the correlation, about 0.57, or the variance ratio of 0.33. Both skip the one-over-N floor, and an interviewer who hears 0.57 knows the candidate has not thought about what an index of uncorrelated stocks still does.
The second is describing the trade as long stock volatility and short index volatility and stopping there. The vega sizing is chosen so that volatility cancels; the exposure that remains is correlation, and the candidate who cannot say that cannot explain why a crash, which raises every volatility, loses the trade money.
What the interviewer asks next
- A crash takes every stock to 45 volatility and the index to 40. What is the realised correlation and the P&L on the same notionals?
- Why is implied index correlation usually above realised, and who is paying for that?
- How would you size the legs to be correlation-weighted rather than vega-flat, and what does it change?
- Could you build the same exposure with straddles instead of variance swaps, and what would you lose?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
