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Equity Research interview preparation

Sell side and buy side. Every question is either traced to a named firm from a public candidate report, or tagged at desk level when we could not trace it. Answers lead with the point, then the mechanism, then the limitation.

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Question bank

100 questions, mapped to the firms that asked them

Questions
100
Traced to a firm
72
Firms
45
Updated
September 2026
Asked at
All firmsMorningstar12Man Group6Balyasny Asset Management5BLBlackRock5FTFranklin Templeton5MSCI5Jefferies4CSCredit Suisse3Fidelity Investments3Moody's3Perella Weinberg Partners3Point723S&P Global3The Vanguard Group3WMWellington Management3Advent International2Apollo Global Management2Bank of America2Carlyle Group2DED.E. Shaw2Houlihan Lokey2HSBC2Piper Sandler2Sequoia Capital2SSState Street2Viking Global Investors2WBWilliam Blair2ACAQR Capital Management1BGBaupost Group1BMBNY Mellon1Centerview Partners1Coatue Management1Goldman Sachs1GSGuggenheim Securities1HWHarris Williams1Insight Partners1Invesco1Mizuho1Moelis & Company1MSMorgan Stanley1PIMCO1SCSchroders1Scotiabank1T. Rowe Price1TSTruist Securities1
Topic
All topicsResearch process9Stock pitch6Company analysis8Investment philosophy5Valuation14Modelling2Portfolio and risk8Macro8Sector knowledge2Accounting8Career and fit12Industry knowledge6Quantitative research1Sector: technology3Sector: consumer1Sector: healthcare1Sector: energy1Sector: financials2Sector: industrials1Case and estimation2
Level
AnyCoreIntermediateHard
Type
AnyTechnicalCaseFitBrainteaserMarket view
Showing 41–50 of 51 · filtered from 100Clear filters
  1. 071What effect do interest rates, GDP and inflation have on stock prices?MacroIntermediatetechnicalMSCIReal Estate · Mumbai · 2015

    Say this

    Work through the two terms of the valuation: expected cash flows and the discount rate. GDP drives the cash flows, rates drive the discount rate, and inflation affects both, which is why its net effect is the least predictable.

    Then walk it

    1. Rates: higher rates raise the discount rate and lower present value, hitting long-duration equities hardest. They also raise the cost of debt and the attractiveness of the risk-free alternative.
    2. GDP: stronger growth lifts revenue and, because of operating leverage, lifts earnings by more than revenue. Cyclicals benefit most.
    3. Inflation is the ambiguous one. Moderate inflation with pricing power lifts nominal revenue and earnings. High or volatile inflation compresses multiples because it raises uncertainty and usually brings tighter policy.
    4. The pass-through question decides the winners: companies with pricing power and short input cycles pass inflation on; those with fixed-price contracts and volatile inputs get squeezed.
    5. The interaction matters more than any single variable. Rates rising because growth is strong is generally fine for equities; rates rising because inflation is out of control is not. The same move in the same variable has opposite implications.
    6. For India specifically, add the currency and the foreign flow channel: higher global rates tend to strengthen the dollar, pressure the rupee and pull foreign portfolio flows out, which hits index levels independently of domestic fundamentals.

    Where candidates lose it

    Giving three separate one-line answers. The interviewer wants the mechanism through the valuation equation and the recognition that the cause of a rate move changes its implication. For an India-based interview, the flow channel should appear.

    Expect next

    • Which is worse for equities, high inflation or high rates?
    • How do foreign flows affect the Indian market?
    • Which sectors have pricing power?

    Reported by candidates at MSCI (Real Estate, Mumbai, 2015). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

  2. 075How does the rupee affect an Indian exporter's earnings?MacroIntermediatetechnicalIndian research desks

    Say this

    Depreciation lifts reported revenue and margin for a dollar earner with rupee costs, roughly one for one on the translated revenue. But hedging, competitive pass-through and input costs mean the realised benefit is usually much smaller.

    Then walk it

    1. The mechanical effect: revenue earned in dollars converts into more rupees, while wages and local costs stay in rupees, so the margin expands. For IT services a one percent depreciation is often quoted as roughly 15 to 20 basis points of EBIT margin.
    2. Hedging delays it. Most large exporters hedge 6 to 12 months of receivables forward, so the benefit arrives with a lag and at the hedged rate, not the spot rate.
    3. Competitive pass-through erodes it. If all competitors in a country enjoy the same depreciation, clients eventually demand price concessions, so part of the gain is given back in rate negotiations.
    4. Imported inputs offset it. A manufacturer importing components or crude-linked raw materials sees costs rise in rupees at the same time, so the net effect can be neutral or negative.
    5. Balance sheet effects matter too: foreign currency borrowings become more expensive to service and translate, which can swamp the operating benefit for a leveraged company.
    6. So the analysis is net exposure, not gross: dollar revenue less dollar costs less dollar debt service, adjusted for the hedge book. That net number is what a currency move actually acts on.

    Where candidates lose it

    Assuming a weaker rupee is straightforwardly good. The hedge book, pass-through and imported input costs routinely halve or reverse the effect. Net exposure is the concept being tested.

    Expect next

    • How would you find the hedge position?
    • Which Indian sectors lose from depreciation?
    • What happens to a company with dollar debt?
  3. 078What is channel stuffing and how would you detect it?AccountingHardtechnicalForensic accounting

    Say this

    Pushing more product into distributors than end demand supports, to book revenue now. You detect it through rising receivables and distributor inventory, quarter-end revenue spikes, and a gap between sell-in and sell-through.

    Then walk it

    1. The mechanism: the company recognises revenue when product ships to the distributor, not when the end customer buys. So it can manufacture a quarter by shipping harder, often with extended payment terms or discounts as the inducement.
    2. Signal one: days sales outstanding rising, because those distributors were given longer to pay.
    3. Signal two: revenue concentrated in the last weeks of the quarter, visible in the shape of quarterly results and sometimes in disclosed monthly data.
    4. Signal three: the gap between sell-in, what the company ships, and sell-through, what end customers buy. Where both are disclosed, a persistent gap is the clearest evidence there is.
    5. Signal four: rising returns and allowances, and a growing reserve for returns, because stuffed channels eventually send product back.
    6. Corroborate externally: distributor commentary, channel checks, and industry data on retail sales. And watch for the reversal, since a stuffed quarter borrows from the next one, so the pattern is a beat followed by a miss.

    Where candidates lose it

    Describing the concept without the detection method. The examinable content is the specific evidence, receivable days, quarter-end concentration and the sell-in versus sell-through gap. Name at least three.

    Expect next

    • What other revenue recognition games should you watch for?
    • How would you check distributor inventory?
    • How do you confront management about it?
  4. 079Walk me through the three statements and tell me which one you would want if you could only have one.AccountingCorephone / first roundMoody'sGeneralist · New York · 2022JefferiesEquity Research · New York · 2026

    Say this

    The cash flow statement. It is the hardest to manipulate, it tells you whether the reported profit is real, and it shows you the capital allocation decisions, which reveal what management actually believes.

    Then walk it

    1. The linkage first: net income flows from the income statement to the top of the cash flow statement and into retained earnings; ending cash flows onto the balance sheet.
    2. Why cash flow: it reconciles accounting judgement back to something verifiable. Starting from net income and adjusting to cash, it exposes the accruals in between.
    3. It also contains the investing and financing sections, so you see CapEx, acquisitions, buybacks, dividends and debt movements. That is the capital allocation record in one page.
    4. The honest caveat: the cash flow statement alone does not tell you whether the business is profitable, what the margin structure is, or how leveraged the balance sheet is. You would be flying with one instrument.
    5. And it can be managed at the margin: classifying items between operating and investing, timing payments around the period end, and factoring receivables all flatter operating cash flow.
    6. But among the three, it is the one where the gap between reality and presentation is smallest, which is why it is the right answer.

    Where candidates lose it

    Picking the income statement because it shows profit. The expected answer is cash flow, and more importantly the reason: accounting profit involves judgement and cash largely does not. Give the caveat too, since the question is testing judgement, not recall.

    Expect next

    • What can still be manipulated in the cash flow statement?
    • What would you miss without the balance sheet?
    • How do you assess earnings quality from it?

    Reported by candidates at Moody's (Generalist, New York, 2022); Jefferies (Equity Research, New York, 2026). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

  5. 080How do you treat one-off items when building your earnings base?AccountingIntermediatetechnicalAsset management

    Say this

    Exclude genuinely non-recurring items, but be sceptical about what qualifies. The test is whether a similar item has appeared in previous years. Recurring one-offs are operating costs with a flattering label.

    Then walk it

    1. Genuinely one-off: a legal settlement, a disposal gain, a natural disaster loss, a one-time tax item. These should come out of the earnings base you value.
    2. Suspect: restructuring charges. If a company has taken restructuring charges in seven of the last eight years, restructuring is what the company does, and the charge belongs in earnings.
    3. Also suspect: impairments, which people exclude as non-cash. An impairment is an admission that capital previously deployed was wasted, so excluding it from history while keeping the acquired revenue flatters the return on capital.
    4. The method: build a five-year table of every adjustment the company made, and see which categories repeat. That table is often the most revealing exhibit in a research note.
    5. Be symmetric. Analysts reliably exclude one-off costs and quietly keep one-off gains. Applying the same standard in both directions is the discipline.
    6. And decide once, then apply consistently across the whole comparable set, or your multiples are not comparable.

    Where candidates lose it

    Accepting the company's adjusted number. The whole point of independent research is to make your own judgement about what is recurring, and the five-year adjustment table is the evidence for it.

    Expect next

    • How do you treat impairments?
    • What if the company adjusts for stock-based compensation?
    • How would that change the multiple you apply?
  6. 083How would you value a company with a large stake in a listed subsidiary?ValuationHardtechnicalIndian research desks

    Say this

    Sum of the parts. Value the core business on its own operating metrics, then add the market value of the listed stake, usually at a holding company discount, and subtract net debt at the parent.

    Then walk it

    1. Value the core operating business separately, using only its own earnings. This means stripping out any consolidated contribution from the subsidiary, which is the step people get wrong.
    2. Value the stake at its observable market value. That is the cleanest input in the whole exercise, so use it rather than modelling the subsidiary again.
    3. Apply a holding company discount, typically 20 to 50 percent, to reflect tax on disposal, the fact that the parent will probably never sell, and the governance discount investors apply to conglomerate structures.
    4. Subtract parent-level net debt and any other claims to get to equity value.
    5. Watch the consolidation treatment carefully. If the subsidiary is consolidated, its revenue and EBITDA are in the group numbers, so applying a group multiple double-counts the stake. Either deconsolidate or do not add the stake.
    6. This is a very common structure in India and Korea, where promoter-led holding companies own listed operating subsidiaries. The persistent discount is one of the most reliable features of those markets and also one of the most persistent value traps, because the discount rarely closes without a structural event.

    Where candidates lose it

    Double-counting by applying a group multiple to consolidated earnings and then adding the market value of the stake. That is the classic error and it is why this question gets asked.

    Expect next

    • What discount would you apply and why?
    • What would cause the discount to close?
    • How does minority interest affect your bridge?
  7. 084What is minority interest and why does it appear in enterprise value?ValuationIntermediatetechnicalBulge bracket IB

    Say this

    It is the portion of a consolidated subsidiary the parent does not own. You add it to enterprise value because the consolidated EBITDA includes 100 percent of that subsidiary, so the numerator must reflect 100 percent too.

    Then walk it

    1. Accounting: if a parent owns more than 50 percent it consolidates the whole subsidiary, taking all of its revenue and EBITDA, then deducts the minority's share of profit below the line.
    2. So consolidated EBITDA overstates what belongs to the parent's shareholders.
    3. To keep the multiple consistent, you add minority interest to enterprise value. Both numerator and denominator then represent the whole enterprise, including the part owned by others.
    4. Use the market value of the minority if the subsidiary is listed. Book value is the fallback and is usually a poor estimate.
    5. The alternative approach is to deconsolidate: strip the subsidiary's EBITDA out and value the parent's stake separately. Cleaner conceptually, more work, and it is what you do when the subsidiary is very different from the core business.
    6. The error to avoid is forgetting it entirely. If you ignore minority interest, a company that consolidates a large partly-owned subsidiary will look artificially cheap on EV/EBITDA, and that appears constantly in emerging market comp sets.

    Where candidates lose it

    Knowing the rule but not the reason. The reason is consistency between numerator and denominator, and being able to state that is what shows you understand enterprise value rather than having memorised the bridge.

    Expect next

    • Should you use book or market value for it?
    • When would you deconsolidate instead?
    • How does this distort a comp set?
  8. 091What is the difference between top-down and bottom-up investing?Investment philosophyCorephone / first roundAsset management

    Say this

    Top-down starts from the macro and works to sectors and then stocks. Bottom-up starts from individual companies and builds a portfolio from the best ideas, largely ignoring the macro view.

    Then walk it

    1. Top-down: form a view on growth, rates, inflation and currencies, then decide which regions and sectors benefit, then choose vehicles within them. Common in multi-asset and macro strategies.
    2. Bottom-up: analyse companies on their own merits, buy the ones with the widest gap between price and value, and let the sector weights fall out of that process. Common in fundamental long-only and long-short equity.
    3. The argument for bottom-up is that macro forecasting has a poor track record while company-level analysis has a more reliable edge. The argument for top-down is that in some sectors, banks, energy, mining, the macro variable determines the outcome regardless of company quality.
    4. In practice most fundamental investors are bottom-up with macro awareness: they will not build a macro forecast, but they will know what macro assumption is embedded in their position.
    5. The honest version for an interview is to say which you are and why, and then acknowledge where your approach is weakest. A pure bottom-up investor in a commodity producer is implicitly taking a price view whether they admit it or not.
    6. And match your answer to the firm. Saying you are a pure top-down thinker at a stock-picking shop is a mismatch you can avoid by reading what they run.

    Where candidates lose it

    Claiming to do both equally. That reads as having no process. Pick one, defend it, and acknowledge the cases where the other dominates.

    Expect next

    • Which are you?
    • Where does your approach break down?
    • How much macro should a stock picker have a view on?
  9. 092How much macro view should a bottom-up stock picker have?Investment philosophyHardsuperdayHedge fundsAsset management

    Say this

    Enough to know what macro bet is embedded in the portfolio, but not enough to trade on a forecast. The goal is awareness of unintended exposure, not prediction.

    Then walk it

    1. The case against macro forecasting: the evidence on rate, currency and growth prediction is poor, and a stock picker's edge is in company-level information, not in outguessing the bond market.
    2. But every bottom-up portfolio contains implicit macro positions. Owning five industrials and two banks is a bet on the cycle whether you intended it or not.
    3. So the discipline is measurement rather than forecasting: know your aggregate exposure to rates, to the cycle, to a currency, to a commodity input. A risk system does this, and a good analyst does it mentally.
    4. Then decide whether the exposure is intended. If it is not, hedge or resize. If it is, be explicit that part of the thesis is a macro call, and size accordingly.
    5. Where macro genuinely cannot be avoided is in sectors where the macro variable is the business: banks and rates, miners and commodity prices, homebuilders and mortgage rates. There, a view is unavoidable and pretending otherwise is dishonest.
    6. The formulation I would give: I do not forecast macro, but I refuse to hold an exposure I have not noticed.

    Where candidates lose it

    Either claiming macro is irrelevant, which is naive, or presenting yourself as a macro forecaster in a stock-picking seat. The sophisticated position is measuring embedded exposure rather than predicting.

    Expect next

    • What macro exposure is in your best idea?
    • How would you hedge it?
    • Which sectors force you to take a macro view?
  10. 093What is a catalyst, and why do investors care so much about it?Research processIntermediatetechnicalHedge fundsLong-short funds

    Say this

    A specific identifiable event that causes the market to recognise the value you see. It matters because being right about value without a mechanism for the gap to close means you are just paying opportunity cost.

    Then walk it

    1. Types: results that break a trend, guidance revision, a capital markets day, an asset sale or spin-off, a refinancing, a regulatory decision, a patent or contract event, index inclusion, or activist involvement.
    2. Why it matters for returns: IRR is time-sensitive. Making 30 percent in one year is very different from making 30 percent over five, and without a catalyst you cannot estimate the timeline.
    3. For a short it is more than useful, it is essential, because of borrow costs and unlimited downside. A short without a catalyst is a position that bleeds while you wait.
    4. In a fund with quarterly capital scrutiny, the catalyst is also what allows you to hold through drawdown, because you can point to the event that resolves the debate.
    5. The counterargument, worth giving: long-horizon compounders often have no catalyst at all, and demanding one biases you toward event-driven situations and away from quality businesses that simply keep compounding. Buffett-style investing is explicitly catalyst-free.
    6. So my position: for shorts and for value situations, insist on a catalyst. For quality compounders, the catalyst is the passage of time and continued execution, and that is legitimate as long as you say so explicitly.

    Where candidates lose it

    Insisting every position needs a catalyst without acknowledging that long-duration compounding does not. Knowing when the rule applies and when it does not is the more sophisticated answer.

    Expect next

    • What is the catalyst on your best idea?
    • How long would you hold without one?
    • Does a compounder need a catalyst?
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