Hedge Funds puzzles, solved step by step
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002The classic Russian roulette puzzle: a six-chamber revolver has two bullets in adjacent chambers. The cylinder is spun once, the trigger is pulled and it clicks empty. You must pull again. Is it safer to spin the cylinder again first, or not?SchonfeldCentral · 2022
Try it first
Which gives the better chance of surviving the second pull?
Show the worked solution
Do not spin: you survive 75% of the time, against 66.7% if you spin. The empty click puts the cylinder on one of the four empty chambers, each equally likely. Because the two bullets sit together, three of those four empties are followed by another empty and only one is followed by a bullet. A fresh spin throws that information away and gives four chances in six.
What does the empty click tell you?
Picture six people in a queue where two friends always stand together. Pick someone at random who is not one of the friends and ask whether the person behind them is a friend. Only one of the four has a friend behind them: the one standing just in front of the pair. The empty click is information: it tells you which chambers you could be on, and using it is the whole puzzle. The cylinder has no memory, but you do.
After an empty click the cylinder sits on chamber 3, 4, 5 or 6; three of those are followed by an empty chamber and only chamber 6 is followed by a bullet, so not spinning survives 75% of the time against 66.7% for a fresh spin. The relationship3/4 three of the four empty chambers are followed by another empty 4/6 four of six chambers are empty after a fresh spin What it says in wordsConditioning on the empty click beats resetting to the base rate when the bullets sit together.Why does the answer flip if the bullets are not adjacent?
Separate the bullets, say into chambers 1 and 4. The four empties are now 2, 3, 5 and 6, and the chambers after them are 3, 4, 6 and 1: two empties and two bullets. Not spinning now survives only 2 times in 4, 50%, so spinning, at 66.7%, becomes the better choice. Adjacency is what bunches both bullets behind a single empty chamber. Ask where the bullets sit before you answer, and say that the answer depends on it.
Where does this reasoning show up on a desk?
The same move, updating on what you have just observed instead of resetting to the base rate, is how a trader reads a fill. Getting filled on your bid tells you something about who was selling, just as the empty click tells you which chamber you are on. Ignoring it is the equivalent of spinning the cylinder: it feels neutral, but it throws away an edge you were handed for free.
Where candidates lose it
Candidates say it makes no difference, because a spin feels like a clean reset and the cylinder has no memory. The trap is treating no memory in the device as no information for you: the click has ruled out the two loaded chambers as your position.
The second loss is answering without checking the layout. The case for not spinning rests entirely on the bullets being adjacent; with the bullets apart, the answer reverses. Name that condition in your answer.
What the interviewer asks next
- You survive the second pull without spinning. Should you spin before a third?
- Three bullets in adjacent chambers: spin or not?
- What if the two bullets are in chambers 1 and 4?
Asked at Schonfeld, Quantitative Research, Central, 2022 (Wall Street Oasis):
Coding, requires to know DP and divde and conquer., Russian Roulette
027A trade surveillance screen flags 90% of genuinely suspicious trades and wrongly flags 5% of clean ones. One trade in a hundred is suspicious. A trade has just been flagged. What is the chance it is actually suspicious?CitadelMiami · 2022
Try it first
Gut answer first: a flagged trade is suspicious with probability about
Show the worked solution
About 15%, not 90%. Picture 10,000 trades. 100 are suspicious and the screen flags 90 of them. 9,900 are clean and it wrongly flags 5%, which is 495. So 585 trades are flagged and only 90 are suspicious: 90 over 585 is 15.4%. The false flags swamp the true ones because clean trades are so common.
Why is 90% the wrong number?
A smoke alarm that goes off whenever there is a fire is good. But if it also goes off every time someone makes toast, most of its alarms are toast. The 90% tells you how often a suspicious trade gets flagged; the question asks how often a flag is suspicious, and those run in opposite directions. Mixing them up is called the {term('base rate', 'How common something is before any test is run. Here, one trade in a hundred is suspicious.')} fallacy, and it is exactly what this question is built to catch.
How do you get the number without the formula?
Use counts, not percentages. Start with 10,000 trades because it makes every number whole. Split by the truth first, then by what the screen says, and then read only the flagged column. 1% of 10,000 is 100 suspicious trades; 90% of those, 90, are flagged. 9,900 are clean; 5% of those, 495, are flagged anyway. The flagged column holds 585 trades, and 90 of them are the real thing.
Of 10,000 trades, 100 are suspicious and 90 of those are flagged, while 495 of the 9,900 clean trades are flagged by mistake, so only 90 of the 585 flags, 15.4%, point at a suspicious trade. The relationshipS the trade is suspicious F the screen flags the trade 0.01 the base rate: one trade in a hundred is suspicious What it says in wordsThe chance a flag is right equals true flags divided by all flags.Add the desk point after the number. A second, independent check changes things fast: run the 585 flagged trades through a second screen with the same error rates and the 15.4% prior becomes about 77%. A weak test is still useful as a first filter; it is only misleading when its hit rate is read as its accuracy.
Where candidates lose it
Most candidates say 90% within a second, because the question hands them that number. It is the chance of a flag given a suspicious trade, and the interviewer asked the reverse.
The second loss is starting on Bayes' formula with decimals and getting tangled. Say you will use 10,000 trades, draw the two splits, and the answer reads straight off the flagged column.
What the interviewer asks next
- What false flag rate would make a flag right half the time?
- The flagged trades go through a second independent screen and are flagged again. What is the chance now?
- Compliance wants to catch 99% of suspicious trades. What does that usually do to the false flag rate?
Asked at Citadel, Sales and Trading, Miami, 2022 (Wall Street Oasis):
I got a question about Bayes' theorem applied to a practical scenario
040A bag holds four stones, each black or white. Before you look, every count of black stones from 0 to 4 is equally likely. You draw two stones without replacement and both are black. What is the chance the next stone is black, and at what price would you bet on it?CitadelNew York · 2025
Try it first
Chance the third stone is black:
Show the worked solution
3/4, so fair odds are 3 to 1 on black. Two black draws rule out bags with 0 or 1 black. The ways to draw two blacks in order are 2, 6 and 12 for bags with 2, 3 and 4 black, so those bags now carry 10%, 30% and 60%. The next stone is black with chance 0, 1/2 and 1 in them, which averages to 3/4. A contract paying 100 if black is worth 75.
How do the two black draws change your view of the bag?
If a friend pulls two red sweets from a jar you have never seen, you start to suspect it is mostly red. Each possible bag is reweighted by how likely it was to produce what you saw: equal priors times the chance of two blacks. Drawing two blacks in order has 0 ways from bags with 0 or 1 black, 2 x 1 = 2 ways with 2 black, 3 x 2 = 6 with 3 black and 4 x 3 = 12 with 4 black. Out of 20 in total, that is 10%, 30% and 60%: the all-black bag is now the favourite.
Before the draw each bag is 20% likely; after two black stones the bags with 2, 3 and 4 black carry 10%, 30% and 60%, and since the next stone is black with probability 0, one half and 1 in those bags, the chance it is black is 3/4. How do you turn the posterior into a price?
Average the chance of black over the bags you still believe in. In the 2-black bag both remaining stones are white; in the 3-black bag one of two is black; in the 4-black bag both are, so the answer is 0.1 x 0 + 0.3 x 1/2 + 0.6 x 1 = 3/4. A contract paying 100 if the next stone is black is worth 75. You would buy it below 75 and sell it above; as a market maker you might quote 70 at 80. Offered even money on black, your expected profit per rupee staked is 0.75 minus 0.25, which is 50 paise.
The relationshipk the number of black stones in the bag B1 B2 the event that the first two draws are black 2, 6, 12 the ordered ways to draw two blacks from bags with 2, 3 and 4 black What it says in wordsThe chance of another black is the average of each bag's chance, weighted by how much the evidence now favours that bag.Check it with Laplace rule of successionWith a uniform prior, after s successes in n trials, the chance the next trial succeeds is (s + 1) / (n + 2).: after 2 blacks in 2 draws the next is black with chance (2 + 1)/(2 + 2) = 3/4, and the rule holds exactly for this finite bag. Two routes to 3/4 is what separates a solid answer from a lucky one. The limitation: everything rests on the flat prior. If you had reason to think mixed bags were more common, 3/4 would fall.
Where candidates lose it
The common loss is saying 1/2 because the remaining stones are unknown, which throws away the information in the two draws. The question is about updating, and the interviewer wants to see the reweighting.
The second loss is weighting the surviving bags equally, a third each, which gives 1/2. Each bag must be weighted by how likely it made two blacks: 2, 6 and 12. Then price it: a probability without a bet is half the answer at a trading firm.
What the interviewer asks next
- The third stone is black too. What is the chance the fourth is black?
- You quote 70 at 80 on a contract paying 100 if black and someone who has seen the bag lifts your offer. What now?
- How does the answer change if the prior is that each stone is black with probability one half, independently?
Asked at Citadel, Quantitative Trading, New York, 2025 (Wall Street Oasis):
Extended bayes derivative question about four stones in a bag (black and white stones).
052A family has two children and you learn that at least one of them is a girl. What is the probability that both are girls? How does the answer change if you learn instead that the elder child is a girl?Quant and systematic fundsProp and quant trading firms
Try it first
At least one child is a girl. What is the chance both are?
Show the worked solution
One in three if you learn at least one is a girl, and one in two if you learn the elder is a girl. List the four equally likely families by birth order: boy-boy, boy-girl, girl-boy, girl-girl. At least one girl rules out only boy-boy and leaves three, one of which is girl-girl. Naming the elder rules out two orders and leaves girl-boy and girl-girl.
Why is the answer not simply one half?
Picture a friend tossing two coins behind a screen and telling you that at least one came up heads. She has told you something about the pair, not about a particular coin, so you cannot treat the other coin as a fresh toss. The pair had four equally likely outcomes and her remark removes only one of them, tails-tails. Two children work the same way, provided each birth is equally likely to be a boy or a girl and the two births are independent.
Of the four equally likely birth orders, at least one girl strikes out only boy-boy and leaves three cells, so both girls is 1 in 3, while the elder is a girl keeps only the two cells of the elder-girl row, so both girls is 1 in 2. The relationshipGG both children are girls 1/4 the chance of girl-girl among four equally likely orders 3/4 the chance of at least one girl: every order except boy-boy What it says in wordsA conditional probability is the chance of both things happening divided by the chance of the thing you were told.What changes when you learn that the elder is a girl?
Now the information is about a named child. Naming the child removes a whole row of the grid, both orders in which the elder is a boy, so two cells survive and the answer becomes one half. The younger child's sex is untouched by what you learned, which is why it now behaves like a fresh toss. The same arithmetic, 1/4 divided by 1/2, gives 1/2.
Why would a fund interviewer ask this?
Because every piece of market news arrives through a filter, and the filter changes what the news means. How you came to learn a fact is part of the fact. A screen that says at least one of two stocks beat estimates tells you less about each stock than a screen that names the one that did. Draw the grid, give both answers, and say the assumption out loud: independent births, each equally likely to be a boy or a girl.
Where candidates lose it
Nearly everyone answers one half for both versions, because the second child feels like a separate coin toss. The interviewer is checking whether you notice that at least one does not say which one.
The other way to lose it is to reach one third and then say one third again for the elder-girl version. Draw the grid, strike the cells each statement rules out, and count what is left.
What the interviewer asks next
- You visit the family and a girl, chosen at random from the two children, opens the door. What is the chance both children are girls?
- At least one child is a girl born on a Tuesday. What is the chance both are girls?
- With three children and at least one girl, what is the chance all three are girls?
066You roll a fair die repeatedly until you have seen every even number, 2, 4 and 6. Given that the last new even number to appear is a 2, what is the probability that your first roll was a 1? Why is the intuitive answer of 1/5 wrong?Squarepoint CapitalLondon · 2026
Try it first
Given the game ends on a 2, what is the chance the first roll was a 1?
Show the worked solution
The probability is 1/6, not 1/5. Ending on a 2 rules out a first roll of 2, but it does not leave the other five faces equally likely. A first roll of 4 or 6 has already cleared one rival, so 2 then finishes last half the time; after an odd first roll it finishes last only a third of the time. Weighting the faces by those chances gives 1/6 for a 1.
Why does ruling out one face not spread its weight evenly?
Suppose you hear that a friend arrived late to a meeting. Before, the bus, the train and the car were equally likely ways she travelled. Learning how things ended shifts weight towards the starts that make that ending more likely, in proportion to how strongly each one leads to it. If the bus is late twice as often as the train, the bus now carries twice the train's weight. The 1/5 answer treats the ending as if it only ruled a face out and said nothing else.
How likely is a 2 to finish last after each first roll?
Odd rolls never change the order in which the even numbers first appear, so after an odd first roll the three evens are still symmetric and 2 is last with chance 1/3; after a first roll of 4 or 6 only two evens remain and 2 is last with chance 1/2; after a first roll of 2 it can never be the last new even. Multiply each by the 1/6 chance of that first roll: the joint chances are 1/18 for each odd face, 0 for a 2 and 1/12 for each of 4 and 6. They add to 1/3.
An odd first roll leaves 2 last among the evens a third of the time, a 4 or 6 leaves it last half the time and a 2 never does, so given the game ends on a 2 each odd face has chance 1/6 and each of 4 and 6 has chance 1/4, not 1/5 each. The relationshipP(first = 1) the chance of rolling a 1 first, 1/6 P(2 last | first = 1) the chance 2 is the last even to appear after an odd first roll, 1/3 P(2 last) the overall chance the game ends on a 2, 1/3 by symmetry What it says in wordsBayes' rule: the prior chance of a 1, times how strongly a 1 leads to ending on a 2, divided by the overall chance of ending on a 2.How do you check the answer?
Make the six posterior chances add up. Three odd faces at 1/6 each and two even faces, 4 and 6, at 1/4 each give 1/2 plus 1/2, which is 1, with nothing left for a 2. The odd faces keep exactly their starting weight because an odd roll tells you nothing about the evens; all the weight removed from the 2 goes to 4 and 6. Saying that sentence shows the interviewer you understand Bayes ruleThe rule for updating a probability after new information: the prior times the likelihood of the information, divided by the overall chance of the information. rather than recite it.
Where candidates lose it
The trap is to condition only by elimination: the game ends on a 2, so the first roll was not a 2, so the five other faces share the weight at 1/5 each. That treats the ending as a filter when it is also evidence about the start.
The second loss is getting 1/6 and being unable to say where the missing weight went. Name it: 4 and 6 each rise to 1/4, because they make ending on a 2 more likely.
What the interviewer asks next
- Given the game ends on a 2, what is the chance the first roll was a 4?
- What is the expected number of rolls in this game?
- Given the game ends on a 2, what is the chance the second roll was a 1?
Asked at Squarepoint Capital, Quant Research Intern Interview, London, 2026 (Wall Street Oasis):
why is the probability of seeing a 1 on our first roll, given that we end on a 2, not 1/5
077In a Monty Hall game you pick door 1. This host does not know where the car is: he opens one of the other two doors at random, and it happens to show a goat. Should you switch, and why does the usual two-thirds answer no longer hold?Squarepoint CapitalLondon · 2026
Try it first
The host opened a door at random and it happened to show a goat. What is your chance of winning if you switch?
Show the worked solution
It makes no difference: switching and sticking each win half the time. List the six equally likely cases of car position and the host's random pick. Two of them reveal the car, and you have seen that they did not happen. The four that remain split two and two. The knowing host gives two thirds only because he never risks the car, which pushes those two cases into the switch column.
Where does the usual two-thirds answer come from?
In the standard game the host knows where the car is and always opens a goat door. Your first pick is right one time in three, and nothing the knowing host does can change that, so the other two thirds sit on the remaining closed door. His choice carries information because it is forced: when the car is behind door 2, he must open door 3, and when it is behind door 3, he must open door 2.
What changes when the host picks at random?
Picture a friend who does not know the answer to a quiz question and strikes out one option on a whim. If that option happens to be wrong, you have learned less than if someone who knew had struck it. The random host is that friend. Write out six cases: the car behind door 1, 2 or 3, each with the host's coin choosing door 2 or door 3. In two of the six the random host opens the car door, and the goat you saw rules those two out, which removes switch wins rather than stick wins.
In the same six equally likely cases, a knowing host redirects the two where his coin points at the car, so switching wins 4 of 6; a random host shows the car in those two, they are ruled out, and switching wins 2 of the 4 that remain, one half. Count what is left. The car behind door 1 survives both host choices: two cases where sticking wins. The car behind door 2 survives only when the host opened door 3, and the car behind door 3 only when he opened door 2: two cases where switching wins. Two against two.
The relationship2/6 cases where the car is behind the other closed door and the host showed a goat 4/6 all cases where the host showed a goat, which is what you observed What it says in wordsCondition on what you saw: of the cases where a goat appears, half have the car behind the door you would switch to.Why would an interviewer want the intuitive answer broken rather than recited?
Because the lesson travels to every desk. The same observation carries different information depending on the process that produced it. A strong track record shown by a manager who launched ten funds and closed the nine that did badly is a host choosing which door to open for you. Before you update on evidence, ask whether the source could have shown you something else, and whether it chose what to show.
Where candidates lose it
Candidates who know the classic puzzle answer two thirds on reflex. The interviewer changed one fact, that the host knows, and is checking whether you notice that the host's knowledge is exactly what made switching better.
The other loss is saying one half without a reason, which sounds like the naive answer to the classic game. Name the two ruled-out cases, where the car would have been shown, and show that both come out of the switch column.
What the interviewer asks next
- With 100 doors and a knowing host who opens 98 goat doors, what is your chance if you switch?
- With 100 doors and a random host who happens to open 98 goat doors, what is it now?
- Where does the same logic show up when you read a fund family's track record?
Asked at Squarepoint Capital, Quant Research Intern Interview, London, 2026 (Wall Street Oasis):
notably I was asked why the 'intuitive answer' was not true rather than just what the correct answer was, related to the Monty Hall problem
090Each of your analysts calls the direction of a stock correctly 70% of the time, independently of the others, and your prior is 50/50. Two analysts disagree. What is your probability now that the stock goes up? What if a third analyst then sides with the one who said up?Quant and systematic fundsProp and quant trading firms
Try it first
Where are you after the disagreement, and after the third call?
Show the worked solution
50% after the disagreement, and 70% once the third analyst sides with up. Work in odds. Each analyst's call multiplies the odds by 0.7/0.3 = 7/3 in the direction called. One up and one down multiply by 7/3 and 3/7, which cancel, leaving the prior of 1:1. The third call multiplies by 7/3 again: odds of 7:3, a probability of 70%. A two-to-one split is worth one analyst, not two thirds.
Why switch from probabilities to odds?
Think of two friends who read the weather equally well and disagree about rain: you are back where you started, however good they are. With independent signals, each one multiplies your odds by its likelihood ratioHow much more likely a piece of evidence is if the claim is true than if it is false., so in odds form Bayes' rule is just multiplication. An analyst who is right 70% of the time says up with chance 0.7 if the stock will rise and 0.3 if it will fall, so an up call multiplies the odds by 7/3 and a down call by 3/7.
Starting from 50%, analyst A's up call moves the chance of up to 70%, analyst B's down call returns it to 50%, and analyst C's up call moves it to 70% again, not to the 67% a vote count suggests; three up calls and none down would give 92.7%. How do the three calls combine?
Start at 1:1. The first analyst says up: 7:3, or 70%. The second says down: 7:3 times 3:7 is 1:1, back to 50%. The third says up: 7:3 again, 70%. Only the net count of calls matters, not the total. Three for up and none against would give 343:27, about 92.7%, which shows how much the one dissenter costs.
The relationship1 the prior odds of up against down, 50/50 7/3 the likelihood ratio of an up call from a 70% accurate analyst 3/7 the likelihood ratio of a down call What it says in wordsMultiply the prior odds by one likelihood ratio per independent call, then turn the odds back into a probability.What assumption carries all of this?
Independence. If the analysts read the same research and speak to the same management teams, their errors are correlated, and a second agreeing call adds much less than a factor of 7/3. In the extreme where the second analyst simply copies the first, it adds nothing at all. The rule also assumes each analyst is right 70% of the time whichever way the stock moves; an analyst who calls up too often tells you more when calling down. State independence as the assumption, then say how you would test it: by checking how often the analysts' past calls agreed with each other.
Where candidates lose it
The vote-counting answer, two out of three so 67%, is the usual loss. It treats a majority as a probability, when a two-to-one split carries exactly one net call of evidence, 70%.
The second loss comes after the disagreement: candidates reach for something like 58%, feeling that two good analysts must add something. With equal accuracy and opposite calls, the evidence cancels exactly.
What the interviewer asks next
- One analyst is right 80% of the time and the other 60%. The better one says up, the other down. Where are you?
- Five analysts split three to two. What is your probability?
- How would you estimate how correlated your analysts' calls are, and how would you adjust for it?
