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Showing 1–6 of 6 · filtered from 100Clear filters
  1. 008A stock closes at 100, 96, 104, 99, 110, 105 and 112 on seven days, and short selling is not allowed. What is the maximum profit from one buy and one sell, and from any number of round trips?Market making and trading gamesWarm upMan GroupLondon · 2019

    Try it first

    What is the most you can make with any number of round trips?

    Show the worked solution

    One round trip makes at most 16; unlimited round trips make 26. For one trade, walk the prices once, carrying the lowest price so far and the best sale against it: buy at 96, sell at 112. For many trades, add every day-on-day rise and skip every fall: 8 + 11 + 7 = 26. Without short selling the falls are simply sat out, never profited from.

    How do you find the best single trade without checking every pair?

    Imagine walking down a street of shops that all sell the same phone, planning to buy once and sell once further along. You do not need to compare every pair of shops: carry the cheapest price seen so far in your head, and at each shop ask what selling here would make against it. One pass, keeping the running minimum and the best gap found so far, gives the best single trade. Here the running minimum drops to 96 on day 2 and the best gap appears on day 7: 112 - 96 = 16.

    One trade catches the whole move; many trades catch every rise95100105110+8+11+7100Day 196Day 2104Day 399Day 4110Day 5105Day 6112Day 7dashed: one trade, 96 to 112 = +16One round trip: 112 - 96 =16Every rise: 8 + 11 + 7 =26Falls are sat out: with no short selling they cannot be traded
    The best single trade buys at 96 on day 2 and sells at 112 on day 7 for 16, while trading every rising leg, 96 to 104, 99 to 110 and 105 to 112, collects 8 + 11 + 7 = 26.
    DayPriceMoveLowest so farBest single trade so farSum of rises so far
    110010000
    296-49600
    3104+89688
    499-59688
    5110+11961419
    6105-5961419
    7112+7961626
    One pass through the prices tracks both answers at once: the running minimum gives the best single trade, 16, and the running sum of positive moves gives the many-trade maximum, 26.

    Why is the many-trade answer just the sum of the rises?

    Any rise from a low to a later high is the sum of the daily steps inside it, and some of those steps may be falls. With no short selling and no costs, the most you can make is the total of every positive day-on-day move, 26 here, because trading only the up steps collects everything a longer trade would and skips its falls. In practice that is three round trips: buy 96, sell 104; buy 99, sell 110; buy 105, sell 112.

    What does the interviewer add next?

    Costs. Once each round trip costs something, the sum of rises overstates the profit, because small moves stop being worth trading. With a cost of 6 per round trip, the three separate trades net 2 + 5 + 1 = 8, the best two-trade split nets 9, and the single trade from 96 to 112 nets 10, so the single trade now wins. The general version is a short dynamic programme that tracks the best profit on each day while holding and while flat.

    Where candidates lose it

    For the first part, candidates take the lowest and highest prices without checking the order. Here they happen to line up, 96 before 112, but an interviewer who swaps two prices will catch anyone who never checked that the low comes first.

    For the second, the loss is counting falls as profit, which needs a short sale the question forbids, or stopping at 16 because it is the best single trade. Say the rule plainly: bank every rise, sit out every fall.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What if each round trip costs 6?
    • What if you may make at most two round trips?
    • How does the answer change if short selling is allowed?

    Asked at Man Group, Alternative Investments, London, 2019 (Wall Street Oasis): Given a series of prices, find the one buy/sell trade pair which gives the maximum profit

  2. 019Three dealers quote USD/INR at 84.00, EUR/USD at 1.10 and EUR/INR at 93.00, each a single price you can deal at. Is there an arbitrage, which way do you trade it, and what is the profit on EUR 1 million?Market making and trading gamesCoreProp and quant trading firmsVolatility and relative value funds

    Try it first

    Which statement is right?

    Show the worked solution

    Yes: the direct quote is rich by 60 paise, so buy euros through dollars and sell them for rupees at 93.00, making Rs 6 lakh on EUR 1 million before costs. The implied rate is 1.10 x 84.00 = 92.40 rupees per euro. Spend Rs 9.24 crore on USD 1.1 million, turn that into EUR 1 million, and sell the euros for Rs 9.30 crore. You finish in rupees, where you started, with Rs 6 lakh more.

    How do you spot the mispricing in one line?

    If one stall sells mangoes at Rs 100 a dozen and the stall next to it buys them back at Rs 10 each, you would buy dozens and sell singles all day. Every pair of currencies can be priced two ways, directly or through a third currency, and when the two prices differ you buy on the cheap route and sell on the rich one. Through dollars a euro costs 1.10 dollars at Rs 84.00 each: Rs 92.40. The direct dealer pays Rs 93.00. That 60 paise gap is the whole trade.

    Price the euro two ways; buy on the cheap route, sell on the rich oneEURINRUSD1. buy USD at 84.002. buy EURat 1.103. sell EURat 93.00Rupees per euro, two routes92.092.492.893.2via USD: 92.40buy heredirect: 93.00sell heregap 60 paise a eurox EUR 1,000,000 = Rs 6,00,000Rs 6 lakh, before costs
    A euro costs Rs 92.40 when bought through dollars at 84.00 and 1.10 but fetches Rs 93.00 from the direct dealer, so running rupees to dollars to euros and back to rupees earns 60 paise a euro, Rs 6 lakh on EUR 1 million before costs.
    StepTradeYou payYou receive
    1Buy USD with rupees at 84.00Rs 9,24,00,000USD 1,100,000
    2Buy EUR with dollars at 1.10USD 1,100,000EUR 1,000,000
    3Sell EUR for rupees at 93.00EUR 1,000,000Rs 9,30,00,000
    Net, in rupeesRs 6,00,000
    Starting and ending in rupees, the three legs turn Rs 9.24 crore into Rs 9.30 crore, a profit of Rs 6 lakh on EUR 1 million, before spreads and dealing costs.

    What stops this from being free money in practice?

    Three things. Real quotes have a bid and an offer, and the gap survives only if it is wider than the three spreads you cross plus the cost of dealing. A 60 paise gap on a 92 rupee price is about 0.65%, far wider than dealer spreads in major currencies, which is why a gap that size would be traded away almost at once. And the legs must be done together: if one price moves before you finish, you are left holding an open currency position instead of a locked-in profit.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common slip is running the loop the wrong way round: selling euros through dollars and buying them directly. That locks in a 60 paise loss on every euro. Decide which route is rich before placing any leg, and say it out loud.

    The second is quoting the profit in a mix of currencies or on the wrong notional. Start and end in the same currency; starting from rupees makes the answer a clean Rs 6 lakh on EUR 1 million.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • EUR/INR is quoted 92.95 / 93.05, USD/INR 83.99 / 84.01 and EUR/USD 1.09975 / 1.10025. Is there still an arbitrage?
    • Why do gaps like this almost never appear in major currencies?
    • If the third leg fails to fill, what position are you left with?
  3. 033Make a two-way market on the sum of three fair dice. Then one die is revealed to be a 6. Where do you move your market, and should it get wider or narrower?Market making and trading gamesCoreCitadelLondon · 2026

    Try it first

    After the 6 is shown, what happens to your market?

    Show the worked solution

    Move the mid from 10.5 to 13 and tighten the market by about a fifth. Each die averages 3.5, so three dice average 10.5. Once one die shows 6, the sum is 6 plus two unknown dice averaging 7, which is 13. The variance falls from 3 x 35/12 to 2 x 35/12, so the standard deviation drops from 2.96 to 2.42. If the first market was 9.5 at 11.5, the new one is about 12.2 at 13.8.

    Where do you put the first market, and how wide?

    Start from the fair value and then decide the width from how uncertain the outcome is. The mid is the expected sum, 3 x 3.5 = 10.5, and the width should scale with the standard deviation of the sum, because that is how far the answer typically lands from the mid. One die has variance 35/12, so three independent dice have 35/4 = 8.75, a standard deviation of 2.96. A market of 9.5 bid, 11.5 offered is a reasonable opening: tight enough to trade, with room for your edge.

    What does revealing one die change?

    A weather forecast for tomorrow is more precise than one for next week, because fewer things can still change. Once one die is known, it contributes a certain 6 and no uncertainty, so the mid rises by 2.5 and only two dice of variance remain. The mid becomes 6 + 7 = 13. The variance becomes 35/6, a standard deviation of 2.42, down from 2.96. Scale the width by the same ratio, about 0.82, and a 2.0 wide market becomes about 1.6 wide: 12.2 at 13.8.

    The reveal shifts the centre up 2.5 and narrows the spread of outcomes5%10%15%3456789101112131415161718Sum of the three diceBefore: 9.5 / 11.5After a 6: 12.2 / 13.8Before: mean 10.5, sd 2.96After a 6: mean 13, sd 2.42
    Before the reveal the sum is centred on 10.5 with a standard deviation of 2.96; after one die shows 6 it is centred on 13 with a standard deviation of 2.42, so the market moves up by 2.5 and tightens from 2.0 wide to about 1.6.

    Say what would make you widen instead. If the person revealing the die can choose which die to show, or picks the moment, the reveal itself carries information and you should be more careful, not less. A 6 chosen as the highest of three tells you the other two are 6 or lower, and they no longer average 7. Interviewers like it when you ask who chose what to reveal before you requote.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common loss is widening after the 6 because it feels like a shock. A shock that is fully known removes uncertainty. The mid jumps, but the range of outcomes shrinks.

    The second loss is moving the mid by the full 6, or to 16.5 as if all dice were sixes. Only the revealed die is known; the other two still average 3.5 each.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • A second die is revealed as a 1. Where is your market now?
    • The revealer chose to show the highest of the three dice. Where do you quote?
    • Someone lifts your 13.8 offer straight away. What do you do next?

    Asked at Citadel, Quantitative Research, London, 2026 (Wall Street Oasis): 3rd I got rejected it was different brainteasers and trading game

  4. 045You make a market on the number of heads in 10 fair coin flips: 4.5 bid, 5.5 offered. A counterparty who has already seen the first three flips lifts your offer. What does the trade tell you, and where do you requote?Market making and trading gamesHardCitadelNew York · 2025

    Try it first

    Given that they bought at 5.5, the fair value is about

    Show the worked solution

    The lift says they saw at least two heads, so the fair value is now at least 5.75, not 5; requote around 5.75 bid, 6.5 offered. The other seven flips are worth 3.5 heads, so the buyer's value is heads seen plus 3.5. Paying 5.5 only makes sense with two heads (5.5) or three (6.5). Those are 3 to 1 likely, giving 5.75; a buyer who needs a strict edge saw three heads, worth 6.5.

    What is the trader's view before they trade?

    A friend offers to buy your raffle ticket after the first few numbers are drawn. The offer itself is the warning. The informed trader values the contract at heads already seen plus 3.5, the expected heads in the seven unseen flips, so their value is 3.5, 4.5, 5.5 or 6.5 with chances 1, 3, 3 and 1 in 8. Against your market of 4.5 bid and 5.5 offered, they buy only if their value is at least 5.5, and sell to you at 4.5 only if it is 4.5 or less. The flat 5 you quoted around is right only for someone who has seen nothing.

    What the buyer saw decides whether they lift: a lift means 2 or 3 heads34567your offer 5.5your bid 4.5value given a lift = 5.750 headsvalue 3.5chance 1/81 headvalue 4.5chance 3/82 headsvalue 5.5chance 3/8may lift3 headsvalue 6.5chance 1/8liftshits bidTrader's fair value after seeing the first 3 flips
    The informed trader's value is 3.5, 4.5, 5.5 or 6.5 depending on how many heads they saw, so a lift at 5.5 means two or three heads, and weighting those 3 to 1 puts the fair value given the trade at 5.75, above your 5.5 offer.

    How do you turn the trade into a new fair value?

    Condition on the fact that they traded. Only the two-head and three-head worlds produce a buy at 5.5, and they are 3/8 and 1/8 likely, so given a lift the value is (3 x 5.5 + 1 x 6.5) / 4 = 5.75. If you assume they would not bother trading at zero edge, only the three-head world is left and the value is 6.50. Either way you sold too cheaply: this is adverse selectionThe tendency of a market maker to trade most with the people who know more, so the trades that happen are the ones that lose money for the market maker., and it is the cost every market maker prices into the spread.

    Now requote. Your bid should not be below what you now believe the floor is, and your offer should sit where even the best informed buyer has no edge. Something like 5.75 bid, 6.5 offered does both: a buyer who saw three heads is indifferent at 6.5, and you are no longer selling below value. Cut your size too, because you know someone is trading with more information than you, and say you would ask whether they could see the flips before quoting again.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common loss is staying at 5 because the coin is fair. The coin is fair; the counterparty is not uninformed. The trade itself carries information and you must update on it.

    The other loss is overreacting and moving to 8 or 9, as if the trader knew all ten flips. They saw three. Condition on what could have made them trade, weight those worlds, and move by exactly that much.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • The same trader then hits your new bid. What do you conclude?
    • How wide should your first market have been if you knew one counterparty could see three flips?
    • What if the trader had seen the first three flips but traded a small size and then a large size?

    Asked at Citadel, Quantitative Trading, New York, 2025 (Wall Street Oasis): Superday was more market-making but requires very sold foundation in math and statistics.

  5. 058A market maker knows that 30% of the orders she receives come from traders who know the true value is exactly Rs 1 above or below the mid. The other 70% are uninformed and buy or sell at random. How wide must her bid-ask spread be just to break even?Market making and trading gamesCoreProp and quant trading firmsVolatility and relative value funds

    Try it first

    How wide must the full spread be?

    Show the worked solution

    The spread must be Rs 0.60: a bid Rs 0.30 below the mid and an offer Rs 0.30 above it. Call the half-spread s. Each uninformed order earns her s on average. Each informed order trades on the side where the value really is Rs 1 away, so she loses 1 minus s. Breaking even needs 0.7s = 0.3(1 - s), which gives s = 0.30.

    Why do some of the people who trade with you cost you money?

    A shop that buys second-hand phones pays the same price to every seller, but the sellers who know their phone is faulty are the keenest to sell. A quote is an offer made to everyone, and the people who know more take it only when it hurts you. The spread is the fee charged to the whole crowd to pay for the few who know more, which is called adverse selectionThe tendency for the counterparties who choose to trade with you to be the ones who know the trade is good for them..

    How do you set up the break-even?

    Charge a half-spread s on each side. An uninformed order is as likely to be a buy as a sell and carries no information, so on average it earns you s; an informed order buys at your offer only when the value is Rs 1 above the mid, so it costs you 1 minus s. Weight each by how often it arrives and set the total to zero: 0.7s - 0.3(1 - s) = 0, so s = 0.30 and the spread is Rs 0.60.

    The relationship
    0.7 s=0.3 (1−s)  ⇒  s=0.30,spread=2s=0.600.7\,s = 0.3\,(1 - s) \;\Rightarrow\; s = 0.30, \qquad \text{spread} = 2s = 0.60
    sthe half-spread, the distance from the mid to the bid or the offer
    0.7the share of orders from uninformed traders
    1 - swhat an informed trade takes: the Rs 1 value gap less the half-spread crossed
    What it says in wordsThe spread earned from uninformed flow must pay for the expected loss to informed flow.
    Expected profit per order: what uninformed flow pays, what informed flow takesHalf-spread Rs 0.20, spread Rs 0.40+0.14-0.24-0.10uninformed70% x 0.20informed30% x 0.80net per orderlossHalf-spread Rs 0.30, spread Rs 0.60+0.21-0.210.00uninformed70% x 0.30informed30% x 0.70net per orderbreak even
    At a half-spread of Rs 0.20 she earns Rs 0.14 an order from uninformed flow but loses Rs 0.24 to informed flow, a loss of Rs 0.10; at Rs 0.30 she earns and loses Rs 0.21 each, the break-even spread of Rs 0.60.

    What moves the spread?

    Two things: how much of the flow is informed and how much the informed know. In general the half-spread is s = aV, where a is the informed share and V is how far the true value sits from the mid, so doubling either doubles the spread. Here 0.3 x 1 = 0.3. That is why quotes widen ahead of a results announcement, when more of the flow may know something, and in small stocks, where one piece of news moves the value a long way. The model leaves out inventory risk and competing quoters, both of which move a real spread; say so.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common slip is answering Rs 0.30, which is the half-spread, or quoting a width without saying where the bid and offer sit. Name both sides: bid at the mid minus 0.30, offer at the mid plus 0.30.

    The deeper loss is charging each informed trade the full Rs 1 and forgetting that the informed trader also crosses the spread, which gives 0.7s = 0.3 and s of about 0.43. Her loss to an informed order is the value gap less the half-spread.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Half the flow is now informed. What spread breaks even?
    • You receive three buy orders in a row. Should you move your mid, and which way?
    • A rival quotes Rs 0.40 wide. What happens to the mix of flow you receive?
  6. 083A binary contract pays Rs 100 if the index closes higher tomorrow and nothing otherwise. The market is 55 bid, 60 offered, and your model says the chance of an up close is 50%. What do you do, and what is your edge?Market making and trading gamesCoreProp and quant trading firmsVolatility and relative value funds

    Try it first

    What is the trade?

    Show the worked solution

    Sell at the 55 bid; the edge is Rs 5 a contract, five points of probability. A contract paying Rs 100 on an up close is worth Rs 100 times the probability, so your model values it at Rs 50. Selling at 55 collects Rs 55 for a liability worth Rs 50 on average. Buying at the 60 offer would give away Rs 10 of expected value. The edge is only as good as the model behind it.

    Why is a binary price just a probability?

    Think of a bet with a friend: you pay a fixed sum now and get Rs 100 back if it rains tomorrow. If you think rain is a 30% chance, the most you would pay is Rs 30. A contract paying Rs 100 or nothing is worth 100 times the probability of the payout, so a price of 55 is the market saying 55%. Read as probabilities, the quote says between 55% and 60%, and your model says 50%.

    A binary price is a probability: sell where the market pays more than your valueedge 540455055606570price in Rs = market's probability in %Your model: 50worth Rs 50 a contractBid 55sell: +5Offer 60buy: -10Sell 100 contracts at 55: receive Rs 5,500Expected payout: 50% x Rs 10,000 = Rs 5,000Expected profit: Rs 500, Rs 5 a contract
    With your model value at 50, a bid of 55 and an offer of 60, selling at the bid earns 5 over fair value and buying at the offer loses 10; selling 100 contracts at 55 receives Rs 5,500 against an expected payout of Rs 5,000, an expected profit of Rs 500.

    Which side of the quote can you trade?

    You buy at the offer and sell at the bid, never the other way round. Buying costs 60 for something your model values at 50, a loss of 10 in expectation, while selling receives 55 for the same thing, a gain of 5. So the trade is to sell at 55. Sell 100 contracts and you receive Rs 5,500; half the time you pay out Rs 10,000 and half the time nothing, so the expected payout is Rs 5,000 and the expected profit Rs 500.

    The relationship
    edge=bid−100×p=55−100×0.50=Rs 5\text{edge} = \text{bid} - 100 \times p = 55 - 100 \times 0.50 = \text{Rs } 5
    bidthe price at which you can sell, 55
    pyour model's probability of an up close, 0.50
    100the payout if the index closes higher
    What it says in wordsYour edge on each contract sold is what the market pays you minus what the contract is worth on your numbers.

    When would you do nothing?

    If your model said 57%, the fair value of 57 would sit inside the quote: selling at 55 loses 2 and buying at 60 loses 3. An edge exists only when your value falls outside the bid and offer, not whenever you disagree with the middle of the market. Then add the honest caveat. A market pricing an up close near 57.5% may know something your model does not, and each contract swings between plus 55 and minus 45, so a 5-point edge needs many independent trades, and a model you trust, before it shows up in the P&L.

    Where candidates lose it

    The fast wrong answer is to buy because the market is above 50 and so seems to think up is likely. That reads the quote as a forecast to follow rather than a price to trade against, and the candidate who buys at 60 pays 10 more than the contract is worth on their own numbers.

    The second loss is trading the wrong side of the quote, selling at 60 or buying at 55. Say which side you would hit before you give the edge.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • Your model says 57%. What do you do?
    • You are asked to make a two-sided market around your 50%. Where do you quote, and why not 49 to 51?
    • The contract instead pays Rs 100 for every point the index rises. How does the pricing change?
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