Case 014Bank economics, fees and riskWarm up
Calculate the all-in annual cost for an Rs 8 crore client paying a 0.75% advisory fee, fund expenses of 1.1% on Rs 5 crore, a PMS fee of 2% on Rs 2 crore and 0.1% in transaction costs on the whole.
1The situation
The Doshi-Ranade household has Rs 8 crore with a wealth manager. Rs 5 crore sits in mutual funds with an average expense ratio of 1.1%, Rs 2 crore in a PMS charging a fixed 2% a year, and Rs 1 crore in directly held bonds with no product fee. On top, the wealth manager charges an advisory fee of 0.75% on the whole Rs 8 crore. Trading and other transaction costs run at about 0.1% of the portfolio a year.
The client's quarterly statement shows the advisory fee on page one and nothing else. Mr Doshi-Ranade asks what he really pays.
2Your task
What is the total cost in rupees and as a percentage, what does it cost over ten years, and how would you present it?
Quick check
Roughly what is the all-in cost as a share of the Rs 8 crore?
Worked solution
Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.
30-second answerThe answer to give first
The client pays about Rs 16.3 lakh a year, 2.04% of his Rs 8 crore, not the 0.75% on his statement. The advisory fee is Rs 6.0 lakh, fund expenses Rs 5.5 lakh, the PMS fee Rs 4.0 lakh and transaction costs Rs 0.8 lakh. At an illustrative 10% gross return, that drag costs him about Rs 3.5 crore over ten years. Present every layer together, in rupees first.
Step 1Why do you convert to rupees before adding?
Each rate sits on a different base. A restaurant bill with a 10% service charge on food only and 5% tax on the whole bill cannot be summed as 15%; you work out each charge on its own base. Costs that apply to different slices of a portfolio must be turned into rupees first, and only then divided by the whole. 0.75% of Rs 8 crore is Rs 6.0 lakh; 1.1% of Rs 5 crore is Rs 5.5 lakh; 2% of Rs 2 crore is Rs 4.0 lakh; 0.1% of Rs 8 crore is Rs 0.8 lakh. The total is Rs 16.3 lakh, 2.04% of Rs 8 crore.
Step 2Which rupee of his money is the most expensive?
Cost differs sharply by sleeve, because the advisory fee sits on top of every product fee. The PMS money pays 2.85% a year all in, more than three times the 0.85% on the directly held bonds. That is the number to test against what each sleeve is for: a PMS at 2.85% has to earn its keep through returns a cheaper route cannot deliver.
| Sleeve | Advisory | Product | Transactions | All-in |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Mutual funds, Rs 5 crore | 0.75% | 1.10% | 0.10% | 1.95% |
| PMS, Rs 2 crore | 0.75% | 2.00% | 0.10% | 2.85% |
| Direct bonds, Rs 1 crore | 0.75% | 0.00% | 0.10% | 0.85% |
| Whole portfolio | 2.04% |
Step 3What does 2% a year cost over ten years?
At an illustrative 10% gross return, Rs 8 crore grows to Rs 20.75 crore in ten years with no costs, and to Rs 17.21 crore at 2.04% of costs a year. The drag is about Rs 3.5 crore, nearly half the money he started with, because every rupee of cost also loses its future growth. The return is an assumption, not a forecast, but the proportion holds at most plausible returns: a 2% annual cost takes roughly a sixth of the ending wealth over a decade.
Step 4How would you present it to him?
All layers on one page, rupees first, then the percentage, then the ten-year figure. Then check each layer on its merits. If the mutual funds are regular plans, part of their 1.1% is distribution commission, which means paying for advice twice alongside the advisory fee; direct plans remove that layer, and the rules on advisers receiving commissions are worth confirming. Disclosing one fee at a time is how clients end up paying more than they would agree to if they saw the total. A client who sees the whole bill, and the reason for each line, is far less likely to leave when he finds it himself.
Where candidates lose it
The most common mistake is adding the percentages, 0.75 + 1.1 + 2 + 0.1, and quoting 3.95%. The rates sit on different bases; only rupees can be added.
The quieter miss is stopping at the annual figure. Interviewers want the compounding: a cost that looks like 2% a year is nearly half the starting capital over ten years.
What the interviewer asks next
- Switching the funds to direct plans cuts their expense to 0.6%. What is the new all-in cost?
- Should the advisory fee apply to the PMS money at all? Argue both sides.
- How would you show these costs on the client's quarterly statement?
Company names and figures are illustrative.
