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049

Case 049Stress testing and scenariosHard

Run a one-year recession scenario on a bank's corporate and retail books. Compute stressed credit losses and the post-stress CET1 ratio, and say what the static result hides.

1The situation

Kanchor Bank has a Rs 40,000 crore corporate loan book and a Rs 25,000 crore retail book. It holds CET1 capital of Rs 6,000 crore against risk-weighted assets of Rs 50,000 crore, a ratio of 12%, and earns pre-provision operating profit of Rs 1,200 crore a year.

In a normal year, corporate loans default at 2% with a 45% loss given default, and retail loans at 3% with 60%. The risk committee's one-year recession scenario takes corporate defaults to 5% with loss given default of 55% as collateral values fall, and retail defaults to 7% with loss given default unchanged at 60%. Hold risk-weighted assets and pre-provision profit flat, and ignore tax. Take Kanchor's minimum CET1 ratio plus buffers as 9.5%, an illustrative figure; the bank's actual requirement should be confirmed.

2Your task

What are the stressed credit losses, where does the CET1 ratio end up, and how much does the answer depend on the simplifications?

Quick check

After the recession year, roughly where is the CET1 ratio?

Worked solution

Try it on paper, then open one step at a time.

30-second answerThe answer to give first

Stressed credit losses are Rs 2,150 crore and the CET1 ratio falls from 12.0% to about 10.1%. Pre-provision profit of Rs 1,200 crore absorbs over half the losses, so capital falls by Rs 950 crore. The bank stays above an illustrative 9.5% requirement but uses 76% of its cushion, and if downgrades lift risk-weighted assets by 8% the ratio drops to about 9.35%, below it. It passes the static test with little to spare.

Step 1What do the two books lose in the recession?

A household planning for a bad year does not just trim its income estimate; it also adds the bills that only arrive in bad years, the repair, the medical cost, the month without work. A stress test adds the losses that only arrive in a recession. Each book's loss is exposure times default rate times loss given default. Corporate: Rs 40,000 crore x 5% x 55% = Rs 1,100 crore. Retail: Rs 25,000 crore x 7% x 60% = Rs 1,050 crore. Together Rs 2,150 crore, against Rs 810 crore in a normal year.

Notice which book moves more. Retail losses rise 2.3 times because only the default rate changes. Corporate losses rise 3.06 times because the default rate rises 2.5 times and loss given default rises from 45% to 55% at the same time, as the factories and property behind the loans are worth less in a recession. When two inputs that multiply each other both rise, the loss rises by the product, not the sum.

Corporate losses triple because two inputs move at onceCorporate book, Rs 40,000 croreNormal: 2% x 45%360Recession: 5% x 55%1,100 (3.1x normal)Retail book, Rs 25,000 croreNormal: 3% x 60%450Recession: 7% x 60%1,050 (2.3x normal)Rs crore. Loss = exposure x default rate x loss given default.Corporate: default rate x 2.5 and loss given default x 1.22 gives losses x 3.06. Retail: only the default rate moves.
In the recession corporate credit losses rise from Rs 360 crore to Rs 1,100 crore, about three times, because default rates and loss given default both rise; retail losses rise from Rs 450 crore to Rs 1,050 crore, 2.3 times, on default rates alone.
Rs croreNormal yearRecession
Corporate credit losses3601,100
Retail credit losses4501,050
Pre-provision profit1,2001,200
Change in CET1+390(950)
CET1 at year end6,3905,050
CET1 ratio on Rs 50,000 crore RWA12.78%10.10%
In a normal year Kanchor's profit exceeds its credit losses and the ratio rises to 12.78%; in the recession Rs 2,150 crore of losses exceed Rs 1,200 crore of profit, CET1 falls by Rs 950 crore and the ratio ends at 10.10%.
Step 2Where does the CET1 ratio end up?

Run the year in order. Pre-provision profit is the first line of defence: it is earned before credit losses are charged, and it adds 2.40 points of ratio. Corporate losses take 2.20 points and retail losses 2.10. The ratio ends at 10.10%, above the 9.5% requirement, but the cushion above it shrinks from 2.50 points to 0.60, so the recession uses 76% of it. In plain money, Kanchor started with Rs 1,250 crore of capital above its requirement and ends with Rs 300 crore.

The ratio survives the recession, but most of the cushion goes12.00%StartCET1 6,000+2.40Pre-provisionprofit +1,200-2.20Corporatelosses 1,100-2.10Retaillosses 1,05010.10%After stressCET1 5,0509.5% requirement(illustrative)Cushion above 9.5%:2.50 points before0.60 points afterratio axis starts at 8%
Kanchor's CET1 ratio starts at 12.00%, gains 2.40 points from pre-provision profit, loses 2.20 to corporate and 2.10 to retail credit losses, and ends at 10.10%, leaving 0.60 points above an illustrative 9.5% requirement.
Step 3What does holding RWA and profit flat hide?

Both simplifications flatter the bank. In a recession, borrowers are downgraded, and lower ratings carry higher risk weightsThe percentages applied to each loan to turn it into risk-weighted assets; riskier borrowers carry higher weights, so a downgrade raises the capital a loan needs.. If risk-weighted assets rise by 8%, the same Rs 5,050 crore of CET1 is a ratio of 9.35%, below the 9.5% requirement. Pre-provision profit also tends to fall as loan growth slows and fees dry up; if it falls by a quarter, the ratio ends at 9.50%, exactly on the requirement, even with RWA flat. The static result is the best case of the scenario, not its central case.

So the judgement has two halves. Kanchor passes the test as specified, and it does not need emergency capital. But it would pass with so little margin, and fail under realistic second-round effects, that the board should agree its management actions now: which dividend it would cut, how far it would slow loan growth, and at what ratio it would raise capital. A stress test earns its keep by setting those triggers before the recession, when they are cheap to agree, rather than during it.

Where candidates lose it

The common error is to take the stressed losses straight off capital, giving 7.7%, and declare the bank in trouble. Pre-provision profit absorbs Rs 1,200 crore before capital is touched, and leaving it out overstates the damage by more than half.

The second is the opposite: to report 10.1% as comfortable. The result rests on flat RWA and flat profit; both usually move against the bank in a recession, and an 8% rise in RWA alone takes the ratio below the requirement.

What the interviewer asks next

  • Pre-provision profit falls 25% in the recession and RWA rises 8%. Where does the ratio end?
  • How much would Kanchor need to cut its dividend to keep a one-point margin over the requirement?
  • Corporate loss given default rises to 65% instead of 55%. Which input is the ratio most sensitive to?
← Case 048A bank is pricing an unsecured personal loan with a 4% default probability and 70% loss given default. Build the minimum rate from its costs, including capital, and judge a proposal to undercut a competitor's 13% offer.Case 050 →A cement company needs Rs 1,500 crore for a new plant and can fund it with debt, new equity, or its own cash plus debt. Compare leverage and liquidity under each, and say which mix a lender should prefer.

Company names and figures are illustrative.

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