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Venture Capital puzzles, solved step by step

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  1. 012Five partners, ranked A (most senior) to E, must split Rs 100 crore of carry in whole crores. The most senior remaining partner proposes a split; if at least half of the remaining partners, the proposer included, vote yes, it stands. Otherwise the proposer is removed from the pool and the next most senior proposes. Each partner is purely self-interested and votes no if indifferent. What does A propose?Decision and game theoryHardMulti-stage VCFund of funds and LPs

    Try it first

    How much does partner A keep?

    Show the worked solution

    A proposes A Rs 98 crore, B nothing, C Rs 1 crore, D nothing and E Rs 1 crore. A needs three of five votes, its own and two more. If A were removed, B's winning plan would give C and E nothing, so Rs 1 crore each buys their votes. Working backwards from two partners up gives every step of the chain.

    Where do you start a problem like this?

    At the end, where the answer is obvious. A chess player thinks about the final position and works back to the move in front of her. Backward induction solves the smallest game first, then uses its answer as each partner's fallback in the next larger game. With only D and E left, D proposes Rs 100 crore for itself; its own vote is one of two, which is half, so it passes. E gets nothing, and everyone further up the table knows it.

    How does each proposer buy votes as the table grows?

    With three left, C needs two votes. E gets nothing if C is removed, so Rs 1 crore buys E: C 99, D 0, E 1. With four left, B needs two votes and D is the partner who would get nothing in C's plan, so Rs 1 crore buys D: B 99, C 0, D 1, E 0. Each proposer buys exactly the votes it needs from the partners whose fallback is lowest, paying one crore more than that fallback. With five left, A needs three votes; C and E get nothing in B's plan, so A pays them Rs 1 crore each and keeps Rs 98 crore.

    Solve from two partners up: each proposer buys the cheapest votesPartners leftPartner APartner BPartner CPartner DPartner E2 left: D, Eneeds 1 yes voteoutoutout10003 left: C, D, Eneeds 2 yes votesoutout99014 left: B, C, D, Eneeds 2 yes votesout990105 left: A, B, C, D, Eneeds 3 yes votes980101proposer keepsvote bought for 1 more than its fallbackRs crore. A partner offered only what it would get anyway is assumed to vote no.
    Working up from two partners, each proposer keeps everything except one crore more than the fallback for each vote it needs, so with five partners A pays Rs 1 crore each to C and E, the two who would get nothing under B, and keeps Rs 98 crore.

    What assumption is doing the work, and what does the puzzle say about real funds?

    The tie rule matters. If an indifferent partner voted yes, A could offer C, D and E nothing and keep all Rs 100 crore, because they get nothing anyway. Stating how indifferent players vote is the step that separates a full answer from a lucky one. The real-world point is that self-interest plus a voting rule rewards whoever controls the agenda, which is why carry splits at real firms are set in writing, with vesting, rather than left to a vote among partners.

    Where candidates lose it

    Candidates try to reason forward from five partners and get lost, or offer an equal split because it feels fair. The question says purely self-interested; fairness is not on the table, and the only way in is from the end.

    The second loss is buying the wrong votes. B and D would do well under B's plan, so they are expensive; C and E get nothing there, so they are cheap. Say who is cheap and why.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • What changes if a proposal needs more than half the votes rather than at least half?
    • With six partners, what does the most senior propose?
    • If indifferent partners vote yes, what does A keep?
  2. 028A multi-stage fund invests in its seed companies' Series A for 90% of the good ones and 30% of the bad ones. Half of its seed companies are good. It passes on one company's Series A. What should outside investors now believe about that company?Decision and game theoryCoreMulti-stage VCSeed and early-stage VC

    Try it first

    After the insider passes, what is the chance the company is a good one?

    Show the worked solution

    Outside investors should cut the chance the company is good from 50% to 12.5%. Take 200 seed companies: 100 good and 100 bad. The fund backs 90 good and 30 bad ones, and passes on 10 good and 70 bad. A pass therefore comes from a good company 10 times out of 80. An insider investing, by contrast, lifts the chance to 75%.

    Why does one fund's decision carry so much information?

    Imagine a restaurant owner who eats at her own restaurant nearly every day, and then one week stops. Regulars notice, because she knows the kitchen better than anyone. An existing investor has a board seat, the monthly numbers and a view of the team, so its choice to follow on or not is a signal from the best-informed party in the room. This is the signalling riskThe damage to a startup's fundraising when a well-informed existing investor declines to invest again, because outsiders read the decision as bad news. founders weigh when they take seed money from a large multi-stage fund.

    200 seed companies through the insider's Series A decision200 companiesseed portfolio100 goodhalf of 200100 badhalf of 20090 backed90% of good10 passed10% of good30 backed30% of bad70 passed70% of bad50%50%Backed: 90 good of 120 =75%Passed: 10 good of 80 =12.5%
    Of 200 seed companies, the insider backs 90 good and 30 bad ones and passes on 10 good and 70 bad ones, so only 12.5% of the companies it passes on are good, against 75% of those it backs.

    How do you turn the percentages into the answer without a formula?

    Use counts, not probabilities; they are harder to get wrong under pressure. Start with 200 companies because it makes every branch a whole number. Of 200, the fund passes on 10 good and 70 bad companies, so a pass is compatible with a good company only 10 times in 80. The same tree answers the mirror question for free: of the 120 companies it backs, 90 are good, so an insider investing lifts the chance from 50% to 75%.

    The relationship
    P(good∣pass)=0.5×0.10.5×0.1+0.5×0.7=0.050.40=12.5%P(\text{good} \mid \text{pass}) = \frac{0.5 \times 0.1}{0.5 \times 0.1 + 0.5 \times 0.7} = \frac{0.05}{0.40} = 12.5\%
    0.5the share of seed companies that are good, and the share that are bad
    0.1the chance the fund passes on a good company
    0.7the chance the fund passes on a bad company
    What it says in wordsOf all the passes, the share that come from good companies is the answer.

    When is the insider's pass weaker evidence than this?

    Say the limit before the interviewer does. The numbers assume the fund passes only for reasons of quality. A fund that has run out of reserves, or whose cheque size no longer fits the round, passes for reasons unrelated to the company, and the fall from 50% should then be much smaller. That is why a good outside investor asks why the insider passed before reading the pass as a verdict, and why founders prefer insiders who state their follow-on policy in advance.

    Where candidates lose it

    Candidates answer 10% because they see the 90% invest rate for good companies and flip it. That is the chance of a pass given a good company, not the chance of a good company given a pass, the classic confusion of the two conditionals.

    The second loss is staying at 50% because it is only one decision. One decision from the best-informed investor moves the odds a long way; draw the tree with 200 companies and show how far.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • How good would the fund's judgement need to be for a pass to leave the odds at 40% rather than 12.5%?
    • What can a founder with a multi-stage seed investor do to reduce signalling risk?
    • If a third of all passes are for fund reasons unrelated to quality, what is the chance a passed company is good?
  3. 040Two co-investors each own 30% of a company that needs a Rs 20 crore bridge. Each can put in Rs 10 crore or refuse. If both fund, the company survives and is worth Rs 120 crore. If only one funds, the money is not enough: the company is sold for Rs 30 crore and the funder loses its Rs 10 crore. If neither funds, it is sold for Rs 30 crore. What are the equilibria?Decision and game theoryCoreMulti-stage VCSeries A to C VC

    Try it first

    Which outcomes are stable, in the sense that neither investor gains by changing its choice alone?

    Show the worked solution

    There are two equilibria: both fund, worth Rs 26 crore each, and both refuse, worth Rs 9 crore each. If the other funds, your best reply is to fund, Rs 26 crore against Rs 9 crore. If the other refuses, your best reply is to refuse, Rs 9 crore against minus Rs 1 crore. Both funding is better for both, but it is only stable if each trusts the other, so bridges fail on coordination rather than on the economics.

    How do you find the equilibria in a two-by-two game?

    Two friends agree to meet for a film, and each will only buy a ticket if the other turns up; alone, the ticket is wasted. Both going is best, but both staying home is also a stable outcome, because neither wants to be the one sitting alone. An equilibrium is a pair of choices where each player's choice is the best reply to the other's, so neither gains by switching alone. Work it from each player's seat: fix the other's move, compare your two payoffs, and mark your best reply. Cells where both players' best replies meet are the equilibria.

    Payoffs in Rs crore (fund 1, fund 2): stake value less cash put inFund 2Puts in Rs 10 crRefusesFund 1Puts in Rs 10 crRefuses26,26stable: neither gains by switching-1,99,-19,9stable: neither gains by switchingcompany survives, worth 120sold for 30, funder's cash lostsold for 30sold for 30, funder's cash lostIf the other funds, funding pays 26 against 9. If the other refuses, refusing pays 9 against -1.Funding is worth it only if you believe the other funds with a chance above 10/27, about 37%.
    Both funding pays each investor Rs 26 crore and both refusing pays Rs 9 crore, and each is stable because the lone funder ends at minus Rs 1 crore, so the bridge needs coordination rather than better economics.

    Where do the payoffs come from?

    Each payoff is the value of a 30% stake less the cash put in. Both fund: 30% of Rs 120 crore is Rs 36 crore, less Rs 10 crore, Rs 26 crore. One funds: 30% of Rs 30 crore is Rs 9 crore, so the funder ends at minus Rs 1 crore and the refuser at Rs 9 crore. Neither funds: Rs 9 crore each. Funding together creates Rs 34 crore of value for the two of them, but neither will move first if it fears being left as the lone funder. This is the structure economists call a stag huntA coordination game with two stable outcomes: a better one that needs both players to cooperate, and a safer one each can reach alone..

    The relationship
    fund if 26q+(−1)(1−q)>9⇒27q>10⇒q>1027≈37%\text{fund if } 26q + (-1)(1 - q) > 9 \quad\Rightarrow\quad 27q > 10 \quad\Rightarrow\quad q > \tfrac{10}{27} \approx 37\%
    qthe chance you put on the other investor funding
    26your payoff if both fund, in Rs crore
    -1your payoff if you fund alone
    9your payoff from refusing, whatever the other does
    What it says in wordsFunding beats refusing whenever you believe the other investor will fund with a chance above about 37%.

    How do investors get to the good equilibrium in practice?

    Remove the fear of funding alone. Bridges are usually written so that no money moves unless the full Rs 20 crore is committed, which deletes the minus Rs 1 crore outcome and leaves funding as the better choice whatever the other does. A lead investor committing first, publicly, does the same job. The limitation of the model is that it fixes both stakes at 30%; in practice the bridge would buy new shares, which raises the reward to funding and makes coordination easier, and a refusing investor may also face penalties such as losing its preferences.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common loss is naming only both funding as the equilibrium because it pays the most. Equilibrium is about best replies, not about the best total, and both refusing is just as stable.

    The second loss is stopping at the two equilibria without saying what to do about it. The interviewer wants to hear that an all-or-nothing commitment or a lead investor moving first removes the bad outcome, which is how bridges actually get done.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • If the lone funder got its Rs 10 crore back when the bridge fails, what are the equilibria now?
    • How does a pay-to-play clause change each investor's payoffs?
    • With three co-investors, each needed for the bridge, how does the trust threshold change?
  4. 061Three funds value a deal at Rs 100 crore, Rs 120 crore and Rs 150 crore, and they bid openly against each other, raising the price until only one is left. Roughly what valuation does the founder get, and why not Rs 150 crore?Decision and game theoryWarm upGrowth equitySeries A to C VC

    Try it first

    Where does the open bidding stop?

    Show the worked solution

    About Rs 120 crore, the second-highest value. As the price rises, Fund A drops out at Rs 100 crore and Fund B at Rs 120 crore. Fund C, which would pay up to Rs 150 crore, wins the moment it bids one step above Rs 120 crore and has no reason to go further. The founder cannot capture C's top value because no one else is willing to push the price there, and C never says what its number is.

    Why does the price stop at the runner-up's value?

    At a house auction, the buyer who would pay Rs 2 crore often gets the house for Rs 1.6 crore, because the last rival stopped there. In an open ascending auction the winner pays roughly what the second-highest bidder was willing to pay, because the bidding ends the moment the second bidder quits. Fund C's private valuation decides who wins; Fund B's valuation decides the price. The Rs 30 crore between them is the winner's surplus, and it stays with Fund C.

    In an open auction, the winner only has to beat the runner-upFund Aworth Rs 100 cr to itdrops out at 100Fund Bworth Rs 120 cr to itdrops out at 120Fund Cworth Rs 150 cr to itsurplus Rs 30 crPrice clears near Rs 120 crore90100110120130140150160Bid, Rs croreFund C's own Rs 150 crore value is never revealed, so the founder cannot charge it.
    Fund A drops out at Rs 100 crore and Fund B at Rs 120 crore, so Fund C wins by bidding just past Rs 120 crore and keeps Rs 30 crore of surplus that the open format never forces it to reveal.

    Could the founder run the process differently and get closer to Rs 150 crore?

    A sealed bid, where each fund names one price and the highest wins at its own bid, looks as if it would extract more. It usually does not, because funds shade their sealed bids below their true value; under textbook assumptions the expected price ends up about the same as in the open auction. What actually moves the price is more serious bidders: a fourth fund valuing the deal at Rs 140 crore would push the clearing price to Rs 140 crore. That is why bankers and founders work so hard to keep several funds in the process to the end.

    Say the limits. Venture rounds are not pure price auctions: founders often take a lower valuation from a fund they want on the board, and term sheets differ on preferences, board seats and option pools, so the headline number is only part of the price. The bid step matters too; the price is Rs 120 crore plus one increment, which in practice is a negotiation rather than a fixed step.

    Where candidates lose it

    The common wrong answer is Rs 150 crore, as if the highest valuation simply becomes the price. It confuses who wins with what they pay, and the interviewer wants to hear that distinction named.

    The second trap is overcorrecting to Rs 100 crore, the lowest value. Walk through the drop-outs in order: A at 100, B at 120, then C stops. The answer is the second value, not the first or the last.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • How would a fourth fund valuing the deal at Rs 140 crore change the price?
    • Why might a founder accept the Rs 100 crore fund's offer anyway?
    • In a sealed-bid round, how much should Fund C shade its bid?
  5. 073Five funds bid for the same deal. Each estimates its value with an independent error spread evenly between minus 20% and plus 20%, and bids exactly its estimate. On average, by how much does the winning fund overpay?Decision and game theoryHardGrowth equityMulti-stage VC

    Try it first

    The winner's average overpayment is about:

    Show the worked solution

    About 13.3%. Every fund's estimate is right on average, but the deal goes to the fund with the highest estimate, and the highest of five errors is not average. For errors spread evenly from minus 20% to plus 20%, the highest of n sits on average (n - 1)/(n + 1) of the way to the top: with five bidders that is 4/6 of 20%, or 13.3%. Winning is itself evidence that you guessed high.

    Why does winning tell you that you overestimated?

    Ask five friends to guess the weight of a goat at a fair and give the goat to whoever guesses highest; the winner will nearly always have guessed too much. When the prize goes to the highest estimate, the winner is selected for being too optimistic, so even unbiased bidders overpay on average. This is the winner's curseThe tendency for the winner of an auction with uncertain value to have overestimated that value, because winning selects the most optimistic estimate.. No one bid foolishly here; each estimate was fair. The overpayment comes entirely from the selection.

    The winning estimate is the one most likely to be too high-20%-10%0%+10%+20%Estimate minus true valueOne fund's error: flat, average 0Highest of five errorstrue valuewinner's average: +13.3%
    One fund's valuation error is spread flat around zero, but the highest of five errors bunches near the top of the range and averages plus 13.3%, which is how much the winning fund overpays on average.
    The relationship
    E[max⁡ of n]=n−1n+1×20%=46×20%=13.3%E[\max \text{ of } n] = \frac{n-1}{n+1} \times 20\% = \frac{4}{6} \times 20\% = 13.3\%
    nnumber of bidders, 5
    20%the widest error any one estimate can have
    (n - 1)/(n + 1)how far toward the top the highest of n evenly spread values sits on average
    What it says in wordsThe best of five evenly spread errors sits on average two-thirds of the way to the top, so the winner is about 13% too high.

    What should a disciplined bidder do about it?

    Bid below your estimate, and more so when there are more bidders or more uncertainty. The curse grows with the number of bidders and with the width of the errors: two bidders overpay by 6.7% on average, five by 13.3%, ten by 16.4%. So a fund in a crowded growth round should shade its bid by roughly the expected overestimate, about 12% of its estimate here, and a fund that keeps winning contested deals should ask whether it is better informed or just more optimistic. A simulation of 200,000 auctions in the source file gives 13.3%, matching the formula.

    BiddersWinner's average overpayment
    10.0%
    26.7%
    513.3%
    1016.4%
    With errors spread evenly up to 20% either way, the winning bid's average overestimate rises with the number of bidders; one bidder has no curse at all.

    The limit: the model assumes every fund's estimate is equally noisy and that all bid their raw estimate. Better-informed funds face a smaller curse, and in practice everyone shades, so real overpayment is smaller than the raw figure. The direction of the effect is what to carry into the room.

    Where candidates lose it

    The fast wrong answer is zero, from the true fact that each estimate is unbiased. The mistake is forgetting that the winner is not a random fund; it is the one with the highest estimate.

    The second trap is answering 20%, as if the winner always has the maximum error. The highest of five sits two-thirds of the way up on average, not at the edge; give the (n - 1)/(n + 1) rule and the 13.3%.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • How does the overpayment change with ten bidders?
    • If one fund has half the error of the others, how should it bid?
    • Why do proprietary deals, with one bidder, avoid the winner's curse?
  6. 087A founder holds a term sheet at Rs 80 crore pre-money that expires today. If she lets it lapse and keeps talking to investors for four more weeks, she expects a 50% chance of an offer at Rs 110 crore, a 30% chance of Rs 80 crore again, and a 20% chance of no deal at all. Should she wait?Decision and game theoryWarm upSeed and early-stage VCSeries A to C VC

    Try it first

    What is the expected pre-money if she waits?

    Show the worked solution

    On these numbers, no: waiting is worth Rs 79 crore on average against a certain Rs 80 crore. Weight each outcome by its chance: half of 110 is 55, three tenths of 80 is 24, and the no-deal branch adds nothing. Waiting loses a crore of expected value and adds a one in five chance of having no round at all, which for a company that needs the money can be far worse than zero.

    How do you compare a sure thing with a gamble?

    A shop offers you Rs 800 for your old phone today, or you can try an online sale that might fetch Rs 1,100, might fetch Rs 800, or might not sell at all. Put a number on the gamble by weighting each outcome by its chance and adding, then compare that expected value with the sure offer. Here waiting gives 0.5 x 110 + 0.3 x 80 + 0.2 x 0, which is Rs 79 crore of pre-money on average, against Rs 80 crore she can sign today.

    Waiting is worth slightly less on average and can leave her with nothingFounderdecidesSign todayRs 80 crore pre-money, certainsignwait?50%Rs 110 crore0.5 x 110 = 5530%Rs 80 crore again0.3 x 80 = 2420%No deal, Rs 00.2 x 0 = 0Wait, on average: Rs 79 croreSignRs 80 croreWait, expectedRs 79 croreand a 1 in 5 chance of nothing
    Signing today gives Rs 80 crore for certain, while waiting gives Rs 110 crore half the time, Rs 80 crore three times in ten and no deal one time in five, an expected Rs 79 crore that sits just below the certain offer.
    The relationship
    E[wait]=0.5(110)+0.3(80)+0.2(0)=79<80E[\text{wait}] = 0.5(110) + 0.3(80) + 0.2(0) = 79 < 80
    E[wait]expected pre-money from waiting, Rs crore
    0.5, 0.3, 0.2chances of the better offer, the same offer and no deal
    What it says in wordsWaiting is worth the chance-weighted average of its outcomes, and here that average falls short of the sure offer.

    Why is the expected value not the whole answer?

    Because the outcomes are not equally painful. A one crore gap in expected value understates the case against waiting, because the 20% branch is not a lower valuation but no round at all. A company with six months of cash that misses a round may have to cut staff or raise on much worse terms later. Even if waiting were worth slightly more on average, a founder who cannot survive the bad branch should still sign. Turn it round to show the margin: holding the no-deal chance at 20%, waiting only beats signing if the chance of Rs 110 crore rises above 53.3%; holding the 50% upside, the no-deal chance must fall below 18.75%.

    What would you ask before trusting the probabilities?

    Where the 50% comes from. Founders tend to overrate the chance of a better offer because the meetings that went well are the ones they remember. Ask how many investors are past a partner meeting, and whether the current lead would return at the same price after being turned down, which this puzzle quietly assumes. A pre-money figure is also not the founder's wealth: the stake she keeps depends on how much she raises as well.

    Where candidates lose it

    The fast wrong answer averages only the two offers, or simply notes that Rs 110 crore is the likeliest outcome, and says wait. The no-deal branch is worth zero and drags the average to Rs 79 crore.

    The second loss is stopping at 79 versus 80 and calling it a coin toss. The interviewer wants the point about the shape of the risk: the bad branch is a missing round, and a company that cannot survive it should not take the bet even at a small expected gain.

    What the interviewer asks next

    • How high must the chance of a Rs 110 crore offer be for waiting to break even?
    • She plans to raise Rs 20 crore in either case. What share does she keep under the Rs 80 crore and the Rs 110 crore offers?
    • Why might an investor deliberately put a short expiry on a term sheet?
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