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Debt Capital Markets · CoreTrack
1Fixed Income, Credit & Rates
iBond Fundamentals
The BondBond Price and YieldPrincipalRedemptionFace Value, Par and PrincipalThe CouponThe IndentureThe IssuerMaturityFixed Income and Debt Securities
iiBond Pricing and Yield
What a Bond Yield…The Policy Rate and a Bond YieldCurrent Yield and Yield to MaturityYield to Maturity and Yield to CallThe Coupon and the YieldReinvestment RiskCarrySpread Return and Price Return
iiiInterest Rate Risk
Duration and ConvexityDuration and Convexity Calculator,…Key-Rate Duration vs Modified DurationThe Basis PointAccrued InterestRecovery RateSpot Rate and Forward RatePrepayment Risk and Extension RiskA Rate View and a Credit ViewInterest-Rate Risk and Reinvestment RiskHow to Analyse a…How to Review Prepayment…How to Analyse a…
ivRates Markets
The Term Structure of Interest RatesThe Yield CurveThe Forward RateThe Term PremiumParallel Shift vs Steepening…
vCurve and Carry Strategies
Curve StrategySteepener, Flattener and ButterflyHow to Read a…How to analyse a Yield-Curve ScenarioThe Butterfly TradeCarry and Roll-Down
viSovereign Bonds
Sovereign BondsPar Bond and Premium BondGovernment SecuritiesHow to Compare Government…Inflation-Linked BondsBond Total ReturnBond LadderHow to Read a Bond Term SheetHow to Map the…How to Analyse a…Treasury BillsTreasury Bill vs Sovereign BondThe Benchmark YieldThe Policy Rate and the Bond Market
viiCredit Risk
Credit RiskCredit Risk and Interest Rate RiskG-Spread, Z-Spread and Option-Adjusted…Credit SpreadTerm Premium and Credit SpreadHow to Build an…Rating ActionsDefault Rate, Loss Given…Expected Credit LossWhat a Credit Rating…A Rating Watchlist EntryThe Fallen AngelThe Credit CurveInvestment Grade and High YieldCollateral vs Guarantee
viiiCredit Analysis
Credit AnalysisCollateral, Guarantee and Credit…How to analyse a…Seniority and SubordinationCovenantsLeverage RatiosGross Leverage and Net Leverage
ixCredit Events and Recovery
Credit EventsCredit Event vs Liquidity EventHow to update Credit…The Distressed ExchangeThe Default NoticeCovenant Breach vs Restructuring EventHow to analyse Default…
xSecuritisation
SecuritisationOriginator, Servicer and Trustee…How to map a…Mortgage-Backed SecuritiesThe TrancheAsset-Backed SecuritiesAsset-Backed Security vs Mortgage-Backed SecurityCredit EnhancementPrepaymentThe Cash Flow WaterfallExtension RiskWeighted Average Life
xiFixed Income Portfolios
Ladder, Barbell and BulletFixed Income Portfolio MeasuresBarbell vs BulletHow to Map the…Tracking Error in Fixed Income
xiiFixed Income Research
Fixed Income ResearchFixed-Charge CoverageHow to assess Fixed-Income…How to Write a…The Four Assumptions That…A Liquidity Assumption and…The Spread ThesisStating Limitations in Fixed…

Default Rate, Loss Given Default and Exposure Compared

Three questions hide inside one word. How often does a borrower fail, and that is a rate a year. How much of the amount owed disappears when it does, and that is a share. How much was owed at that moment, and that is rupees. Multiply the three and rupees a year fall out. An expected loss has always been exactly that.

What are the three questions hiding inside one word?

Ask somebody why they will not lend money to a person they know, and listen to the answer they give. The answer is almost never one reason. The answer is a tangle. The person is unreliable, the amount is large, there is nothing to fall back on, they have been slow before. All of that arrives as a single feeling with a single name. The name is risk, and a feeling cannot be divided by anything.

Three separate questions, asked one at a time, produce something quite different. How often does this person fail to pay? Quite often, comes the answer, maybe one time in ten. When they do fail, how much of what is owed never comes back? Most of it comes back eventually, they say, it just takes a year. And how much is owed right now? Rs 4,000/-, they say, without hesitating.

The same person who could not explain their own reluctance has just supplied three usable numbers, and the reason is that each question has its own unit and none of them can be answered in another one. One time in ten is a frequency. Most of it comes back is a share of something. Rs 4,000/- is an amount. A reader who holds the three apart can say which one they are least sure about, and that is the whole difference between having a view and having a mood.

Credit arithmetic does exactly this, formally, and gives the three questions three names. The first is a probability of defaultThe chance that a borrower fails to pay what was promised, stated as a rate a year unless some other period is written beside it.. The second is a loss given defaultThe share of the amount owed that never comes back once a borrower has failed, written as a percentage of that same amount owed.. The third is an exposure at defaultHow much is owed at the moment failure actually happens, written in rupees rather than as a rate or a share.. Separating the three means stating the base and the period of each one in the same sentence as its figure, and the operation that joins them is a multiplication rather than an addition.

The worked case is the one this sequence has been carrying throughout. Palash Cements Limited, invented for this sequence and holding no credit rating anywhere, has issued a five year bond carrying a 9.10 per cent annual coupon on Rs 1,000.00/- of face, priced at par, annual compounding, one discounting period a year. The five year government SPOT rate on the invented curve behind this sequence is 6.90 per cent a year, on the same annual convention. One taken from the other leaves a gap of 2.20 percentage points, or 220 basis points, and that gap is a credit spreadThe difference between what a borrower promises and what the government pays for the same length of time, written in percentage points and in basis points..

Everything that follows is an attempt to see what is inside that 2.20 points. The spread turns out to contain two of the three components tangled together and none of them separately, the third has to be supplied from outside the price entirely, and the answer the three produce closes back onto the spread it came from. None of that is a disappointment. Knowing the shape of an object is the point of taking it apart.

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How often does the borrower fail, and over what stretch of time?

A probability of default is the chance that a borrower does not deliver what the contract promised, read as widely as the contract itself reads. Paying nothing counts. Paying half counts. Paying every rupee eleven months after it was due counts too, and the three are not the same event and do not cost the same money. Which of them the word covers in any particular rule set is decided by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) at sebi.gov.in, named among the sources below.

Two things must be attached to a default rate before it means anything at all, and a figure quoted without either of them is not a quantity, it is a decoration. The first is the period. The second is the source.

The period comes first. Readers drop the period more often than anything else. A chance of failing over the next twelve months and a chance of failing at some point across five years are different quantities that happen to be written with the same per cent sign. A shop that closes one January in every twenty is not the same object as a shop with a one in twenty chance of closing this month. Here every default rate is written per year, with the words a year attached every single time it appears, figures included. The moment those two words come loose the number starts drifting into a five year statement that nobody wrote.

Now the source. The source is the harder half. There are two completely different ways a default rate can come into existence and they share nothing except the unit they are printed in.

The first way is to count. Take a defined population of borrowers, watch it across a defined stretch of years, record what fraction failed, and divide. Counting produces a counted rate, and its meaning is exactly as wide as the population it was counted over and no wider. The second way is to solve backwards. Take a price, take an assumption about how much is lost when failure happens, and ask what default rate would make the price consistent with the assumption. Solving backwards produces an impliedSolved backwards out of a price under a stated assumption, rather than measured from what happened or forecast from anything. rate.

Every default rate used here is the second kind. No population of borrowers was ever assembled and no year was ever counted. The working figure of 3.6667 per cent a year was divided out of one spread under one assumption, and it describes the price rather than the company.

Two default rates. One unit. Nothing else shared. Educational illustration. Palash Cements Limited and the SPOT curve are invented. IMPLIED FROM A PRICE WHERE IT COMES FROM solved backwards out of one price WHAT MUST BE SUPPLIED an assumed recovery rate WHAT IT DESCRIBES the price, and only the price THE FIGURE USED HERE 3.6667 per cent a year one spread, one assumption, one division COUNTED FROM HISTORY WHERE IT COMES FROM a record of borrowers that failed WHAT MUST BE SUPPLIED a population and a stretch of years WHAT IT DESCRIBES what happened to that population THE FIGURE USED HERE no such figure exists here no default study was read for this platform Both would be written per cent a year. Only one of the two appears here.
One of these two default rates exists here and the other does not. The 3.6667 per cent a year on the left was divided backwards out of a single price under a single recovery assumption. A counted rate would need a population of borrowers and a stretch of years standing behind it, and no such record exists here, so the right hand column stays blank.

The distinction is worth insisting on because the two look identical on paper and are used for opposite purposes. A counted rate is evidence about borrowers. An implied rate is a restatement of a price. A reader handed 3.67 per cent a year beside a company name with no label will file it as evidence, every time, and no amount of careful arithmetic afterwards will get it back out of that drawer. So the word implied travels with the figure at every single use here, and the assumption that produced it is named in the same breath.

How much is lost, and lost of what exactly?

The second question is not how often but how much, and it is asked about a completely different thing. A loss given default is the share of the amount owedThe sum the contract says must be handed over, which is not the same thing as the price somebody paid to acquire the right to receive it. that never comes back after failure. The share is written as a percentage of that amount owed, or as a decimal share of the same amount, and the two are the same statement.

The risk sequence settled the recovery rate earlier, so it is inherited here rather than redefined. A recovery rate is the share of the amount owed that does come back. The loss given default is one hundred per cent less that, taken on the identical base, so naming either one has already named the other.

The relationship between what comes back and what does not
$$ L = 1 - R $$
Lthe loss given default, as a decimal share of the amount owed
Rthe assumed recovery rate, as a decimal share of the same amount owed
What it says in wordsThe share of the amount owed that is lost and the share of the amount owed that comes back must together make up the whole of the amount owed, so once one of the two has been fixed there is nothing left to choose about the other.

The working figure goes through it. The assumed recovery is 40 per cent of the amount owed, an assumption examined properly further on. One hundred less forty is sixty, so the loss given default is 60 per cent of the amount owed, written 0.60 of the amount owed, and both of those readings carry the base out loud.

The base is not decoration attached to the figure, it is half of the figure, and a loss given default of 0.60 applied to the wrong base is a different quantity wearing the same name. This is the single most expensive habit in credit arithmetic, so it is worth a sentence of its own: the base is the amount owed, never the price somebody paid, and never the coupon.

The reason shows in a household example that has nothing to do with bonds. A cousin borrows Rs 50,000/- from a lender. Later, a relative offers to take over that claim for Rs 60,000/-, thinking the cousin is good for it and wanting the interest. If the cousin then fails and 40 per cent of the amount owed comes back, the amount owed is still Rs 50,000/- and 60 per cent of it is Rs 30,000/-. The loss is not 60 per cent of the Rs 60,000/- somebody paid. The price paid changes who carries the loss and how large that person feels it to be, but the contract owes Rs 50,000/- and the recovery is measured on the contract.

On a bond bought at par the two bases coincide exactly. The coincidence is precisely why the error is so hard to see. Palash Cements Limited issued at par, so the price and the amount owed are both Rs 1,000.00/-, and a reader who learned the arithmetic here can apply the share to either figure and get the right answer by accident. The failure block below shows what it costs the first time a bond is bought at any other price, and the answer there is Rs 54.2678/- on a single bond.

Try it out

The assumed recovery is 40 per cent of the amount owed. How is the loss given default stated, with its base?

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How much is owed at a moment nobody can date?

The third question is the plainest to ask and the most awkward to answer. How much is actually owed at the instant failure happens? The figure is the exposure at default, a rupee amount rather than a rate or a share.

For a bond that pays a coupon each year and returns the face amount once at the end, the exposure is the face amount still outstanding plus anything accrued and unpaidInterest already earned by the lender because time has passed, but not yet handed over, so it sits inside the amount owed at the moment of failure. at that moment. A coupon that was earned by the calendar but never arrived is part of what is owed, and leaving it out understates the exposure by however much had built up.

Two features make the exposure genuinely different in kind from the other two components, and both of them matter more than they first look. The first is the unit. A default rate and a loss given default are both pure numbers that can be quoted about a borrower in the abstract, and the exposure cannot: it is rupees, and rupees belong to a particular lender holding a particular claim. Two lenders can agree completely about how often this borrower fails and how much comes back and still carry wildly different exposures. One of them holds ten times as much of the bond as the other.

The second is the timing. The exposure is measured at the moment of failure, and nobody can date that moment in advance. The timing is not a technicality that quietly resolves itself. Think of a caterer who takes a wedding booking. Their exposure to that household is small the week the booking is made, grows steadily as they buy vegetables and hire staff and put down deposits with a tent supplier, peaks the morning of the wedding, and collapses the moment the final payment lands. If the household fails to pay, what the caterer loses depends entirely on which day it happened. The rate at which weddings go wrong and the share of an unpaid bill that is eventually recovered are both unchanged by the calendar. The exposure is nothing but calendar.

Here the arithmetic runs into an honest gap. There is no issue size anywhere in this sequence. Palash Cements Limited has an invented bond with an invented coupon and no stated quantity of it in existence, and inventing one now would put a fabricated total rupee figure into a teaching record where every other number is derived in front of the reader. So the exposure is left unfixed and everything here is worked per Rs 100/- of face amount instead. Every rupee answer below carries those five words with it.

Three components. Three bases. One cell this platform cannot fill. Educational illustration. Palash Cements Limited is invented. Annual compounding throughout. COMPONENT ITS BASE ITS UNIT THE FIGURE HERE Probability of default how often the promise being kept per cent a year 3.6667 implied, not counted Loss given default how much of what the amount owed a decimal share 0.60 assumed, not measured Exposure at default how much is owed it is itself the base rupees at a moment no issue size exists Expected credit loss the three multiplied the exposure rupees a year Rs 2.20/- per Rs 100/- of face No issue size exists anywhere here, so every rupee figure is worked per Rs 100/- of face amount.
Four quantities, and each one answers a different question about a different base. The exposure cell is drawn empty because no issue size exists anywhere on this platform, which is why the closing row reads Rs 2.20/- a year per Rs 100/- of face amount rather than any total.
Try it out

Which of the three components is a rupee amount, and at which moment is it measured?

How does a default rate differ from a loss given default?

The default rate and the loss given default are swapped for one another more often than any other pair in credit, and the swap is silent. Both are written as percentages. Both attach to the same borrower. Both get larger when things get worse. A reader who has met them once and not held them apart deliberately will merge them within a week, and the merged object cannot be used for anything.

Probability of Default vs Loss Given Default

The two questions do not sound alike even when the figures do, so keep the pair apart with the questions.

A probability of default answers how often. Its subject is the event. A default rate says nothing whatsoever about size, and a borrower with a very high one might cost a lender almost nothing each time. A loss given default answers how much of the amount owed. Its subject is the severity once the event has happened. A loss given default says nothing whatsoever about frequency. The figure is a conditional statement about a day that has not arrived, so a borrower that has never missed a payment in its life can still carry a loss given default of 0.95 of the amount owed.

Two households on the same street make the difference physical. The first borrows small amounts constantly and is late roughly one time in three, and always, eventually, pays in full because they are simply disorganised rather than short. High how often, very low how much. The second has borrowed twice in twenty years and repaid both on the day, but everything they hold is pledged elsewhere, so if they ever did fail there would be nothing at all left for the lender. Very low how often, very high how much. Nobody would describe those two households with the same word, and yet a single figure called risk does exactly that.

How often, against how much. Two questions, never one. Educational illustration. Every figure invented and derived here. PROBABILITY OF DEFAULT HOW OFTEN? the chance the promise breaks, counted per year unless some other period is written beside it 3.6667 per cent a year LOSS GIVEN DEFAULT HOW MUCH? the share of the amount owed that never comes back, and the amount owed is always the base 0.60 of the amount owed ONE PRODUCT, TWO COMPLETELY DIFFERENT STORIES 3.6667 per cent a year times 0.60 of the amount owed gives 2.20 points a year 7.3333 per cent a year times 0.30 of the amount owed gives 2.20 points a year Handed only the product, a reader cannot recover either factor from it. 2.20 percentage points a year is the same quantity as 220 basis points a year.
How often is one question and how much of the amount owed is a separate one, and the two are not interchangeable. A rate of 7.3333 per cent a year paired with 0.30 lands on exactly the same 2.20 points a year as 3.6667 per cent paired with 0.60, so the product by itself conceals which of the two stories produced it.

The arithmetic consequence is the part worth carrying away: because the two are multiplied, the same answer arises from an unlimited number of pairs, and being handed the answer tells a reader nothing about either factor. Hold the product still at 2.20 per cent of the amount owed a year and the pairs that produce it are not a short list. The pairs trace a curve.

Same answer everywhere along this line. Different story at every point. Educational illustration. Palash Cements Limited and the SPOT curve are invented. implied default rate, per cent a year 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 0.00 0.20 0.40 0.60 0.80 1.00 EVERY POINT, THE SAME ANSWER 2.20 per cent of the amount owed a year, which is 220 basis points 0.30 with 7.3333 per cent a year an assumed recovery of 70 per cent 0.60 with 3.6667 per cent a year the worked pair used here loss given default, as a share of the amount owed The curve stops where the rate would pass 12 per cent a year. It never reaches either axis.
Hold the expected loss still at 2.20 per cent of the amount owed a year and the pairs producing it trace a curve rather than a point. Every place along it is arithmetically identical and narratively different, which is the reason a spread must never be read as a statement about how often a particular borrower fails.

Look at the shape rather than the values for a moment. The curve never touches either axis, and that is not a drawing accident. A loss given default of zero would mean everything comes back, and then no default rate however large could produce a loss at all. A default rate of zero would mean failure never happens, and then no loss given default however severe could produce one either. Both factors have to be present for the product to exist, and the units say the same thing in a different language.

Try it out

Two borrowers are known to carry the same expected loss. What can be said about their default rates?

Try it out

A rate a year, a share of an amount and a rupee amount are all in hand. Before the formula appears, which operation is the only one that can join them?

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Why does the arithmetic multiply instead of add?

Because addition is not available. The sentence sounds like a joke and is a literal statement about units.

There are three quantities. One is a rate per year. One is a decimal share of the amount owed. One is a number of rupees. Add them and nothing says what the answer is measured in. Three point six six six seven per cent a year plus zero point six zero plus one hundred rupees. The three ingredients do not live on the same scale, and writing them in a row does not make them comparable. No unit exists for that sentence to land in. The mistake is the same category as adding a speed to a distance to a colour.

Multiplication behaves completely differently, and the difference is the whole reason the formula looks the way it does.

Step one, the three components joined
$$ EL = p_{d} \times L \times E $$
ELthe expected credit loss, in rupees a year
pdthe probability of default, per year, as a decimal
Lthe loss given default, as a decimal share of the amount owed
Ethe exposure at default, in rupees at the moment of failure
What it says in wordsAn expected credit loss for one year is the rate at which failure is expected to arrive in that year, scaled by the fraction of the amount owed that would not come back, scaled again by the number of rupees that would be owed when it arrived.

The units are what prove the setup is right, so watch them travel through that multiplication. A rate per year carries the unit per year. A share of the amount owed is a pure number: rupees divided by rupees, with the rupees cancelling. A share therefore has no unit of its own, and its base has to be stated in words instead. The exposure carries the unit rupees. Put them together and per year times nothing times rupees gives rupees per year. Rupees per year is precisely the unit an expected credit lossThe three components multiplied together, which lands in rupees a year on a stated exposure rather than as a rate or a share. is supposed to arrive in.

The units checkConfirming that the units on the left of a calculation actually produce the units on the right, so a rate times a share times an amount really does give an amount a year. is not pedantry, it is the fastest test available that an expected loss has been set up correctly, and it catches most of the ways it can be set up wrongly. An answer that comes out in per cent has left out the exposure. An answer in rupees with no period attached has quietly dropped the year off the default rate. An answer larger than the exposure itself has been multiplied by a percentage where a decimal was meant. None of those need any knowledge of credit to spot. Each one needs a single glance at the unit.

Three units in. One unit out. Only multiplication does that. Educational illustration. Worked per Rs 100/- of face amount, because no issue size exists here. HOW OFTEN a rate, per year 3.6667% a year x HOW MUCH, OF WHAT a share, no unit 0.60 of the amount owed x HOW MUCH IS OWED an amount, in rupees Rs 100.00/- of face amount = THE UNITS CANCEL INTO THE ONE AN EXPECTED LOSS NEEDS Rs 2.20/- a year, per Rs 100/- of face amount Adding the three instead adds a rate to a share to a rupee amount, which has no unit at all.
Three quantities in three units, and multiplication is the only operation that lands them in the unit an expected loss is supposed to carry. A rate a year against a share of the amount owed against rupees gives rupees a year, and that cancellation is the quickest check available that the calculation was assembled correctly.

Run through with the working figures, the answer is small enough to say out loud. A default rate of 3.6667 per cent a year, as a decimal, is 0.036667. Multiplied by 0.60 of the amount owed it gives 0.022 of the amount owed a year. Multiplied by Rs 100.00/- of face amount, the expected credit loss is Rs 2.20/- a year, per Rs 100/- of face amount, on this exposure, under this assumption, at annual compounding.

Notice how many qualifiers that sentence carries and resist the urge to trim them. Each one is naming a base or a period that somebody could otherwise substitute a different value into without realising they had changed the question.

Try it out

The expected credit loss is Rs 2.20/- a year per Rs 100/- of face amount. Which of these is the same quantity written another way?

Which of the three can a price actually supply?

Now to the question a reader arrives with. If the market has priced this bond, and a price contains information, which of the three components does it give up?

The honest answer is none of them on its own. The price gives a spread, and a spread is two of the three components already multiplied together, with the third absent entirely.

The observation itself is the only quantity here that nobody had to supply, so start there. Palash Cements Limited must promise 9.10 per cent a year for five years, annual compounding. Over that identical stretch, the five year government SPOT rate stands at 6.90 per cent a year on the same convention. The difference between what the two must promise is 2.20 percentage points, and the same quantity in the other unit is 220 basis points. The 220 basis points are the spread, and the spread is the whole of what the price handed over.

Step two, what a spread already contains
$$ s = p_{d} \times L $$
sthe credit spread, in percentage points a year, here 2.20
pdthe probability of default, per cent a year, on the amount owed as base
Lthe loss given default, as a decimal share of the same amount owed
What it says in wordsA credit spread is charged per year on the amount owed, and it claims to be the rate at which failure arrives multiplied by the share of the amount owed that failure destroys, which is two of the three components arriving already fused into one figure.

Two things follow immediately and both are worth pausing on. First, the exposure is not in there at all. A spread is a rate, quoted on whatever amount somebody happens to hold, so it says nothing about how much is owed and could not: the same 220 basis points applies whether a lender holds Rs 100/- of face amount or a hundred times that. Second, the two components that are in there are stuck together. One equation, two unknowns, and no amount of staring at the price will separate them.

Nothing whatever inside the price prefers either, so one of the two has to be supplied from outside it, and which one is chosen is a decision with consequences.

Assume the recovery and the price yields the default rate. Assume the default rate and the price yields the recovery. Both are legitimate. Both use identical arithmetic. Neither is more true than the other. An account that shows only the first direction has quietly implied that the first direction is the natural one, and it is not. The first direction is taken here because the risk sequence already settled what a recovery rate is, and that is a choice rather than a necessity.

Step three, supplying the recovery and solving for the rate
$$ p_{d} = \frac{s}{L} = \frac{2.20}{0.60} = 3.6667 $$
pdthe implied default rate, per cent a year, on the amount owed as base
sthe observed credit spread of 2.20 percentage points a year
Lthe loss given default of 0.60 of the amount owed, from an assumed recovery of 40 per cent
What it says in wordsDividing a spread of 2.20 percentage points a year by a loss given default of 0.60 of the amount owed gives 3.6667 per cent a year, and that is the annual default rate this price would be consistent with under that one recovery assumption and under no other.

One rounding caution, given before it can trip anybody rather than after. Carry four decimals inside the multiplication. Two point two zero divided by zero point six zero is exactly three and two thirds per cent a year, so 3.6667 per cent a year is a reading of the figure rather than the figure itself. A reader who takes the printed 3.67 per cent a year and multiplies it back by 0.60 lands on 2.2020 percentage points instead of 2.2000, misses by two ten thousandths of a point, and concludes that they made an error. The reader did not. The rounding did.

Try it out

A price gives a spread. How many of the three components sit inside that spread, and how many of them can be pulled out of it?

Try it out

The default rate here was implied from a spread. Suppose the recovery assumption turns out to be wrong. What happens to the expected loss?

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What happens when one of the three turns out to be wrong?

Here is where holding the three apart stops being tidiness and starts paying. An error in one component does not behave like an error in another. The three fail in genuinely different ways, and the difference is large enough to change what an analyst would go and check.

The exposure is the simple one, so take it first. The exposure multiplies the whole answer and nothing else touches it. Double the exposure and the expected credit loss doubles, exactly, with the rate a year and the share of the amount owed left completely alone. Per Rs 100/- of face amount the answer is Rs 2.20/- a year; per Rs 200/- of face amount it is Rs 4.40/- a year. The relationship is a straight line through the origin, with nothing subtle in it at all.

Now take the recovery assumption, and the behaviour is so different that most readers refuse to believe it the first time. When the default rate has been implied from a spread, getting the recovery assumption wrong does not change the expected loss by a single paisa.

The reason repays slow reading. The sentence is worth more than the arithmetic. The spread is fixed at 2.20 percentage points a year: that is an observation and no assumption can move it. The default rate was not observed, it was calculated as the spread divided by the loss given default. The default rate was defined as a quotient with that denominator, so a change in the loss given default changes the rate by exactly the offsetting amount. Multiplying the two back together multiplies the spread by a number and then divides by the same number.

Assumed recovery, of the amount owedLoss given defaultImplied default rate, per cent a yearExpected credit loss, per Rs 100/- of face
30 per cent0.70 of the amount owed3.1429Rs 2.20/- a year
40 per cent0.60 of the amount owed3.6667Rs 2.20/- a year
50 per cent0.50 of the amount owed4.4000Rs 2.20/- a year
70 per cent0.30 of the amount owed7.3333Rs 2.20/- a year

Four assumptions, four wildly different default rates, and one expected credit loss that never moves. The recovery assumption therefore controls not the answer but the story about why the answer is what it is. At an assumed recovery of 30 per cent of the amount owed the story reads: failure is fairly rare and ruinous. At 70 per cent it reads: failure is twice as frequent and each one is survivable. Both stories cost a lender the same Rs 2.20/- a year per Rs 100/- of face amount, and the price cannot say which of them is true.

One component scales the answer. The other two only trade places. Educational illustration. Palash Cements Limited is invented. Annual compounding throughout. MOVE THE EXPOSURE AND THE ANSWER MOVES WITH IT Rs 2.20/- Rs 4.40/- Rs 100/- of face Rs 200/- of face The rate a year did not move: 3.6667 per cent. The share did not move: 0.60 of the amount owed. Only the base moved, and it took the answer along. STRAIGHT THROUGH, ONE FOR ONE MOVE THE RECOVERY ASSUMPTION AND THE ANSWER STAYS PUT Rs 2.20/- Rs 2.20/- 0.60 with 3.6667% 0.30 with 7.3333% The two factors traded against each other. A fixed spread held them to one product. SAME HEIGHT. DIFFERENT STORY. Both panels are drawn to one scale, so the bars can be compared across the two of them.
The exposure does something neither of the others can: move it and the answer moves one for one, with the rate and the share untouched. Move the recovery assumption instead and the two factors trade against each other beneath a fixed spread, so the bars keep exactly the same height and only the labels underneath them change.
Try it out

The exposure at default doubles and nothing else about the borrower changes. What happens to the expected credit loss?

Cleaning Financial Data teaches you to find the errors that survive every check and break every model.

Why does the answer close back onto the spread it came from?

One step remains, and it is the step that decides what the whole calculation is worth. Take the two components that came out of the price and multiply them back together.

Step four, running the same relationship in the other direction
$$ s = p_{d} \times L = 3.6667 \times 0.60 = 2.2000 $$
sthe credit spread returned by the multiplication, in percentage points a year
pdthe implied default rate of 3.6667 per cent a year, carried unrounded through the multiplication
Lthe loss given default of 0.60 of the amount owed
What it says in wordsMultiplying the implied default rate back by the loss given default it was divided by returns 2.2000 percentage points a year, which is 220 basis points, which is the spread the whole sequence started from.

Expressed on Rs 100/- of face amount the same thing reads Rs 2.20/- a year, and Rs 2.20/- on Rs 100/- is 2.20 per cent of the amount owed a year, which is 2.20 percentage points, which is 220 basis points. Four ways of writing one quantity.

Out of the spread, and straight back into it. Educational illustration. Every figure derived here. Annual compounding throughout. WHERE IT STARTS, AND THIS IS THE ONLY OBSERVED FIGURE the spread, 2.20 percentage points a year, which is 220 basis points divide by the loss given default of 0.60 WHAT COMES OUT, AND IT WAS NEVER COUNTED the implied default rate, 3.6667 per cent a year, carried unrounded multiply by the same loss given default of 0.60 WHERE IT ENDS, WHICH IS WHERE IT BEGAN 2.2000 percentage points a year, which is 220 basis points The loop closes by construction. The middle figure was solved out of the first one.
Divide 2.20 percentage points a year by 0.60 and 3.6667 per cent a year comes out; multiply that back by the identical 0.60 and 2.2000 percentage points a year returns. The loop closes because the middle figure was solved out of the first one, which makes this an identity rather than a piece of evidence about anybody.

The closure is easy to mistake for a successful check, so say what it actually means. The loop is a successful check, in the narrow sense that it confirms no arithmetic slipped. The loop is not confirmation of anything about Palash Cements Limited. The default rate was solved out of that spread. Putting it back cannot produce anything except that spread. An expected credit loss computed this way is not independent evidence about a borrower, it is the spread written in different units.

None of that is a criticism of the method, and none of it makes the method useless. Converting a rate into rupees a year is genuinely useful: a lending desk cannot add 220 basis points across a set of holdings, and it can add rupees. The conversion adds no information. Whatever the price knew, the answer knows, and not one thing more.

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What are the three limits that travel with the number?

Three limits travel with the number. None is optional and none can be dropped when the figure is quoted somewhere else.

First, the recovery of 40 per cent of the amount owed is an assumption, and no counted evidence stands behind it. The figure was chosen for being round and legible in the arithmetic, and moving it moves the implied rate with it: 30 per cent gives 3.1429 per cent a year, 40 per cent gives 3.6667, 50 per cent gives 4.4000 and 70 per cent gives 7.3333. Same price, four answers, and the assumption is doing that much of the work.

Second, the whole of the spread has been treated as payment for credit and nothing else. In a real market some part of a spread compensates a holder for the difficulty of selling a bond when they want to, and every basis point of that read as credit pushes the implied default rate above where it belongs. Carve 0.40 percentage points out of the 2.20 and treat them as buying something other than protection against failure, and 1.80 points of credit are left. Divided by the same 0.60, the 1.80 gives 3.0000 per cent a year rather than 3.6667. Nothing available separates the two portions, and the whole 2.20 has been treated as credit for that reason.

Third, an implied default rate is what a price says. The rate is not a forecast of anything and not a measured frequency of anything. Nobody counted a failure to produce 3.6667 per cent a year. The 3.6667 was divided backwards out of one spread under one assumption, and reading it as the chance that Palash Cements Limited fails misreads the arithmetic that made it.

The error that gets made, and what it costs

Two mistakes account for nearly all the damage done with these three components. Both return a number rather than an error message, and that is why they survive.

The first is adding instead of multiplying. One look at the unit catches it, and a reader who has done the units check once will never make the mistake twice.

The second is the expensive one, invisible in exactly the place where most readers learn it. The mistake is applying the loss given default to the price paid rather than to the amount owed. On a bond bought at par those two figures are the same, so the mistake produces the correct answer and teaches the reader that the base does not matter. The base matters the moment a bond is bought at any other price.

The cost shows on a figure already worked in this sequence. Discounted at the five year government SPOT rate of 6.90 per cent a year instead of at the 9.10 per cent the bond promises, annual compounding, the five payments of this bond are worth Rs 1,090.4464/-, above the Rs 1,000.00/- amount owed. Applying 0.60 to that price gives Rs 654.2678/-. Applying the same 0.60 to the amount owed gives Rs 600.00/-. The gap is Rs 54.2678/- on one bond, and every rupee of it came from choosing a base.

Worse, the error is not random. The mistake overstates the expected loss on every bond bought above the amount owed and understates it on every bond bought below, systematically, in a direction that tracks whatever yields have done since the bond was issued. A portfolio of errors like that does not cancel out.

The repair takes one line: say the base out loud inside the name, every single time, so the quantity is read as sixty per cent of the amount owed and never as sixty per cent on its own.

Same 0.60. Two different bases. Rs 54.2678/- apart. Educational illustration. Palash Cements Limited is invented. Annual compounding throughout. the identical loss share, taken on two different bases 0.60 of the amount owed Rs 1,000.00/- of face Rs 600.00/- 0.60 of the price paid Rs 1,090.4464/- Rs 654.2678/- Rs 654.2678/- less Rs 600.00/- is Rs 54.2678/- on one bond and every rupee of it came from which base the 0.60 was taken on On a bond bought at par the two bases are one figure, which is why the mistake can sit unseen. Rs 1,090.4464/- is these five payments discounted at the five year government SPOT rate.
The same 0.60 taken on two different bases lands Rs 54.2678/- apart on a single bond. Applied to the Rs 1,000.00/- amount owed it gives Rs 600.00/-, and applied to a price of Rs 1,090.4464/- it gives Rs 654.2678/-, while on a bond bought at par the two bases coincide and the mistake never shows itself.

How does anybody actually use three components rather than one?

A lending desk uses them as three separate places to argue. Pricing a new loan, the desk cannot observe any of the three, so it has to form a view on each. The argument about how often failure arrives is an argument about the borrower and its trade. The argument about how much of the amount owed would survive is an argument about what stands behind the claim. Collateral and a guarantee enter the conversation there, and both are covered separately. The argument about the exposure is an argument about the desk itself: how much it chooses to hold, and whether the amount owed will have grown by the time anything goes wrong. Three arguments, three different sets of people in the room, and one number at the end.

An analyst reading a price set by other people uses them in reverse, and uses them mostly as a consistency test. Take the spread the price implies, supply the recovery assumption the analyst is willing to defend, and see what default rate falls out. If a spread implies a rate that seems far away from anything the analyst believes, the useful conclusion is not that the market is wrong. The useful conclusion is that one of the two inputs is being asked to carry more than it can: either the recovery assumption is off, or a good part of the spread is buying something other than protection against failure. The three components turn a single disagreement into three checkable ones.

A household reading its own position uses only the third component, and it is the one people forget. A household can do little about how often a borrower fails and has no view worth having on what would come back. A household controls the exposure completely: how much is lent, to how many different borrowers, and whether the amount at stake with any one of them keeps quietly growing. The exposure responds to a decision. The other two do not, and that difference is why the exposure is worth holding separately.

One look at the unit catches the error. See what the loss components carry.

So what are the three components honestly good for?

Less than the neat formula suggests, and more than nothing. The three components are good for locating a disagreement. Two people who both say a bond looks expensive have said nothing to each other until they say which component they disagree about, and once they do, the argument becomes finite.

The components keep units straight, and keeping units straight sounds small but is not. A rate a year, a share of the amount owed, and a rupee amount at a moment are three things that cannot be swapped, and a reader who writes the base and the period beside every one of them has closed off most of the ways a credit calculation goes quietly wrong.

And they convert a rate into money. A spread can then be set beside a cost, a cushion or a fee that is also quoted in money. The three are not good for telling anybody how likely a particular borrower is to fail. No failure was counted anywhere here, and no arithmetic performed on a price can turn a price into a count.

Try it out

The three components multiplied together give an expected credit loss of 2.20 per cent of the amount owed a year. What has that established about the borrower?

India

Where the rules on all of this actually live

Every step above is written free of any rule set except the compounding convention. The convention is annual throughout. A sum cannot be reproduced without it, so it is stated inside the arithmetic. Each row below is a live question whose answer moves and belongs to whoever sets it.

  • The capital treatment that applies to holding a credit exposure. The Reserve Bank of India, rbi.org.in.
  • The valuation norm that decides the price at which a credit holding is carried. The Reserve Bank of India, rbi.org.in.
  • What counts as a default for reporting purposes, and who decides it has happened. SEBI, sebi.gov.in.
  • The treatment that applies to a holding once it has stopped paying. The Reserve Bank of India, rbi.org.in.
  • What recovery assumption a regulated holder must apply, if any. The Reserve Bank of India, rbi.org.in.
  • The process by which an unpaid claim is resolved, and in what order claims are met. The insolvency authority, ibbi.gov.in.
  • The accounting basis on which an expected credit loss is measured and reported. The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India, icai.org.
Turning the three components into a rupee amount with a calculator is covered under the expected credit loss calculator. What credit risk is and what a spread compensates for were settled earlier in this sequence. The three spread measures, what a credit rating claims, and what happens after a borrower stops paying and in what order claims are met are all covered separately. Whether Palash Cements Limited can pay needs a different kind of evidence, set out under credit analysis. Accounting bases, valuation norms and capital treatments are set by the authorities named among the sources below.

References

SourceNamed forWhere
The Reserve Bank of IndiaThe capital treatment of a credit exposure, the valuation norm deciding the carrying price of a credit holding, the treatment applying to a holding that has stopped paying, and any recovery assumption a regulated holder must applyrbi.org.in
SEBIWhat counts as a default for reporting purposes and who decides it has happened, and what an issuer of corporate debt must disclose and to whomsebi.gov.in
The insolvency authorityThe process by which an unpaid claim is resolved and the order in which claims are metibbi.gov.in
The Institute of Chartered Accountants of IndiaThe accounting basis on which an expected credit loss is measured and reportedicai.org

Palash Cements Limited and the SPOT curve behind this sequence are invented.
Educational material. Not advice on any investment, tax, budget or market position.

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