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Equity Research interview preparation

Sell side and buy side. Every question is either traced to a named firm from a public candidate report, or tagged at desk level when we could not trace it. Answers lead with the point, then the mechanism, then the limitation.

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Question bank

100 questions, mapped to the firms that asked them

Questions
100
Traced to a firm
72
Firms
45
Updated
September 2026
Asked at
All firmsMorningstar12Man Group6Balyasny Asset Management5BLBlackRock5FTFranklin Templeton5MSCI5Jefferies4CSCredit Suisse3Fidelity Investments3Moody's3Perella Weinberg Partners3Point723S&P Global3The Vanguard Group3WMWellington Management3Advent International2Apollo Global Management2Bank of America2Carlyle Group2DED.E. Shaw2Houlihan Lokey2HSBC2Piper Sandler2Sequoia Capital2SSState Street2Viking Global Investors2WBWilliam Blair2ACAQR Capital Management1BGBaupost Group1BMBNY Mellon1Centerview Partners1Coatue Management1Goldman Sachs1GSGuggenheim Securities1HWHarris Williams1Insight Partners1Invesco1Mizuho1Moelis & Company1MSMorgan Stanley1PIMCO1SCSchroders1Scotiabank1T. Rowe Price1TSTruist Securities1
Topic
All topicsResearch process9Stock pitch6Company analysis8Investment philosophy5Valuation14Modelling2Portfolio and risk8Macro8Sector knowledge2Accounting8Career and fit12Industry knowledge6Quantitative research1Sector: technology3Sector: consumer1Sector: healthcare1Sector: energy1Sector: financials2Sector: industrials1Case and estimation2
Level
AnyCoreIntermediateHard
Type
AnyTechnicalCaseFitBrainteaserMarket view
Showing 61–70 of 100
  1. 061How would you analyse an insurance company?Sector: financialsHardtechnicalPerella Weinberg PartnersFinancial Institutions Group · New York · 2026

    Say this

    Two businesses in one: underwriting and investing. Judge underwriting on the combined ratio and investing on the return on the float. Value it on price to book against return on equity.

    Then walk it

    1. The combined ratio is the core underwriting metric: claims plus expenses divided by premiums. Below 100 means underwriting profit; above 100 means they lose money on insurance and rely on investment income.
    2. The float is the money collected as premiums before claims are paid. A company with a combined ratio under 100 is effectively being paid to hold other people's money, which is the whole Berkshire insight.
    3. Reserving is where the judgement and the risk sit. Reserves are estimates of future claims, so an under-reserved insurer looks profitable until it does not. Watch reserve development, which shows whether prior years' estimates proved too low.
    4. The investment portfolio matters for duration and credit risk. A long-tail insurer holds long assets, so it is highly rate-sensitive on both sides.
    5. Valuation is price to book against ROE, like a bank. Life insurers add embedded value and the new business margin, because the economics span decades.
    6. And know the cycle: insurance pricing is cyclical, hardening after large loss events and softening when capital floods in. Where you are in that cycle drives the sector's earnings more than any single company's skill.

    Where candidates lose it

    Treating it as a normal company with revenue and margin. The distinctive content is the combined ratio, the float and reserve adequacy. Missing reserving means missing the main way insurers surprise negatively.

    Expect next

    • What is reserve development and why does it matter?
    • How do rising rates affect an insurer?
    • How would you value a life insurer differently?

    Reported by candidates at Perella Weinberg Partners (Financial Institutions Group, New York, 2026). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

  2. 062How do rising interest rates affect different sectors?MacroIntermediatetechnicalApollo Global ManagementManagement Consulting · London · 2026MSCIReal Estate · Mumbai · 2015

    Say this

    Through three channels: the discount rate, which hurts long-duration assets most; the cost of debt, which hurts leveraged companies; and demand, which hurts anything financed by credit. Banks are the main beneficiary.

    Then walk it

    1. Discount rate: growth companies whose cash flows sit far in the future lose the most value, because more of their valuation is discounted over longer horizons. This is why high-multiple technology de-rates hardest.
    2. Cost of debt: highly leveraged businesses, especially with floating-rate debt or near-term maturities, see interest expense rise directly. Utilities, real estate and leveraged buyout-owned companies are exposed.
    3. Demand channel: anything bought on credit. Housing, autos, capital goods and consumer durables all soften as financing costs rise.
    4. Beneficiaries: banks, as net interest margin expands when they reprice assets faster than deposits, and insurers, who reinvest their float at higher yields. Cash-rich companies earn more on their balances.
    5. Real estate is the clearest loser because it is both leveraged and valued on a cap rate that moves with yields. Rising rates hit the income and the valuation at once.
    6. The refinement worth adding: what matters is the move relative to expectations and why rates are rising. Rates rising on strong growth is very different for equities from rates rising on an inflation shock.

    Where candidates lose it

    Giving a simple 'rates up, stocks down' answer. The examinable content is duration, and the distinction between rates rising for growth reasons versus inflation reasons. Both should appear.

    Expect next

    • Why do growth stocks fall more?
    • Which equities have duration?
    • How does that change if rates rise because growth is strong?

    Reported by candidates at Apollo Global Management (Management Consulting, London, 2026); MSCI (Real Estate, Mumbai, 2015). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

  3. 063Which equities have duration?MacroHardtechnicalBLBlackRockRisk and Quantitative Analysis · New York · 2026

    Say this

    Any equity whose cash flows sit far in the future. High-growth companies with earnings expected years out behave like long bonds, while stable high-yielding mature businesses are shorter duration.

    Then walk it

    1. Duration in equities means the weighted average time to the cash flows. A company earning little today and a lot in a decade has most of its value in distant cash flows, so its value is highly sensitive to the discount rate.
    2. So unprofitable high-growth technology is the longest-duration equity there is, which is why it falls hardest when yields rise.
    3. Conversely, a mature high-dividend business returns cash now, so its duration is shorter and it is less rate-sensitive on the discount channel, though it may compete with bonds for income investors.
    4. Utilities and infrastructure are an interesting case: long contracted cash flows make them long duration, and heavy leverage adds a second rate exposure. They behave like bond proxies.
    5. Value stocks are generally shorter duration than growth, which is a large part of why the value-growth relative performance tracks real yields so closely.
    6. The practical implication for a portfolio: equity duration is a factor exposure you can measure and hedge, and on a risk platform it will be monitored explicitly rather than left implicit.

    Where candidates lose it

    Treating duration as purely a fixed income concept. The question is testing whether you can transfer it. Naming the value-growth spread as a duration trade is the answer that shows real fluency.

    Expect next

    • How would you measure it?
    • Why does value outperform when real yields rise?
    • How would you hedge equity duration?

    Reported by candidates at BlackRock (Risk and Quantitative Analysis, New York, 2026). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

  4. 064How would you compare two companies in the same sector trading at very different multiples?ValuationIntermediatetechnicalCSCredit SuisseGeneralist · Sydney · 2020

    Say this

    Assume the market is right until proven otherwise, then find the justification. Multiple gaps almost always reflect differences in growth, returns on capital, or risk. The investment question is whether the gap is larger than those differences warrant.

    Then walk it

    1. First decompose the gap. Is it growth, margin, returns on capital, capital intensity, cyclicality, balance sheet, or governance? Usually two or three of these explain most of it.
    2. Check the denominators are comparable. Different accounting policies, different fiscal years, different definitions of adjusted earnings, and different treatment of leases or capitalised costs all create fake gaps.
    3. Then quantify. If one grows 5 points faster with 10 points higher return on capital, how much premium does that justify? A regression of sector multiples against growth and ROIC gives a defensible expected multiple for each.
    4. The residual, the difference between the actual multiple and the regression-implied one, is the potential mispricing. That is where the idea lives.
    5. Then look for the non-fundamental explanations: index membership, liquidity, free float, ownership structure, or a governance discount for a controlled company. These are real and persistent.
    6. The conclusion should be specific: the cheaper one is cheap for reasons X and Y, which I think are permanent, or which I think the market is over-extrapolating. Either is a view.

    Where candidates lose it

    Assuming the cheaper one is the better investment. The default position should be that the market has a reason, and your job is to find it and then decide whether it is overstated.

    Expect next

    • What non-fundamental reasons could explain it?
    • Would you pair-trade them?
    • What would close the gap?

    Reported by candidates at Credit Suisse (Generalist, Sydney, 2020). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

  5. 065How would you allocate a $100 million mandate across a portfolio of funds?Portfolio and riskHardsuperdayMSCIRisk Management · Remote · 2013The Vanguard GroupInvestment Research · Malvern · 2024

    Say this

    Start from the objective and the constraints, not from the funds. Required return, risk tolerance, liquidity needs, time horizon and any restrictions. Then build the strategic asset allocation, then select managers within it.

    Then walk it

    1. Establish the mandate first: what return is required, over what horizon, with what drawdown tolerance, what liquidity is needed and what restrictions apply. Everything follows from these.
    2. Set the strategic asset allocation across asset classes. That decision drives the large majority of the variance in outcomes; manager selection is second-order.
    3. Then decide active versus passive by asset class. Use passive where markets are efficient and active where dispersion is high and there is evidence of persistent skill.
    4. Then select managers on process rather than past returns. Understand the source of the edge, whether the team is stable, whether assets have grown beyond the capacity of the strategy, and what the fee structure does to net returns.
    5. Then look at the combination rather than each fund alone. Correlation between managers is what determines portfolio risk, and three managers running the same factor exposure is one position with three fee loads.
    6. Then build in the governance: rebalancing rules, review triggers, and a plan for what would cause redemption. Deciding the sell criteria in advance is what prevents performance-chasing.

    Where candidates lose it

    Jumping straight to picking funds. The correct structure is objectives, then asset allocation, then managers, then monitoring. Also, ignoring correlation between managers, which is the most common real-world error in multi-manager portfolios.

    Expect next

    • What risk-return targets would you set for an institutional investor?
    • How do you judge whether a manager has skill or luck?
    • How would you build a portfolio for different client needs?

    Reported by candidates at MSCI (Risk Management, Remote, 2013); The Vanguard Group (Investment Research, Malvern, 2024). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

  6. 066How do you distinguish manager skill from luck?Portfolio and riskHardsuperdayAsset managementMulti-manager allocation

    Say this

    You mostly cannot from returns alone, because the sample is too short. So you examine the process, the consistency of the attribution, and whether the returns come from the stated edge rather than from an unintended factor bet.

    Then walk it

    1. The statistical problem: distinguishing a genuinely skilled manager from a lucky one at conventional confidence levels can require decades of monthly returns. Three or five years tells you very little.
    2. So use attribution instead. Decompose returns into market beta, factor exposures and residual alpha. A manager whose returns are explained by a persistent small-cap value tilt is selling you beta at alpha fees.
    3. Check consistency with the stated process. If they claim bottom-up stock selection but the returns are explained by sector allocation, the process and the outcome do not match, which is a warning.
    4. Look at the breadth of the record: how many independent decisions produced it? A concentrated fund with three big winners has a much weaker statistical case than a diversified one with a consistent hit rate.
    5. Then the qualitative work: is the team stable, has the strategy scaled beyond its capacity, and has the process changed after the good years?
    6. The honest conclusion is that manager selection is genuinely hard and that the base rate of persistent outperformance after fees is low. An allocator who says that sounds more credible than one who claims a reliable method.

    Where candidates lose it

    Answering 'look at the track record and the Sharpe ratio'. The point of the question is that returns data is statistically almost useless over realistic horizons. Attribution and process are the substance.

    Expect next

    • How long a record would you need?
    • What is capacity and why does it matter?
    • Would you fire a manager after two bad years?
  7. 067What is tracking error and how do you calculate it?Portfolio and riskIntermediatetechnicalMSCIFinancial Tools · Monterrey · 2013

    Say this

    The standard deviation of the difference between the portfolio's returns and the benchmark's. It measures how far a portfolio can drift from its index, and it is the budget within which an active manager operates.

    Then walk it

    1. Calculate the active return each period, portfolio minus benchmark, then take the standard deviation of that series, usually annualised.
    2. Ex-post tracking error uses realised returns. Ex-ante uses a risk model to forecast it from current holdings, which is what a risk system reports daily.
    3. Typical levels: an index fund runs a few basis points, an enhanced index strategy 1 to 2 percent, an active manager 4 to 8 percent, and a concentrated high-conviction fund can be well above that.
    4. It connects to the information ratio, which is active return divided by tracking error. That ratio, not raw outperformance, is how skill per unit of risk is judged.
    5. The main use is as a constraint: a mandate sets a tracking error budget, and the manager allocates it to the positions with the highest expected information ratio.
    6. The subtlety worth naming: tracking error is symmetric, so it penalises outperformance as well as underperformance. A manager can have excellent returns and breach a tracking error limit, which is why the constraint sometimes forces suboptimal decisions.

    Where candidates lose it

    Confusing it with volatility. Tracking error is the volatility of the difference, not of the portfolio. A low-volatility portfolio can have very high tracking error against a volatile index.

    Expect next

    • What is the information ratio?
    • What tracking error would you expect from a concentrated fund?
    • How does a tracking error budget change portfolio construction?

    Reported by candidates at MSCI (Financial Tools, Monterrey, 2013). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

  8. 068What is the difference between alpha and beta, and why does it matter to an employer?Portfolio and riskCoretechnicalHWHarris WilliamsInvestment Banking · Los Angeles · 2025BLBlackRockRisk and Quantitative Analysis · New York · 2026

    Say this

    Beta is the return you get from market exposure, which anyone can buy cheaply. Alpha is the return above what that exposure explains. It matters because clients will not pay active fees for something an index fund delivers.

    Then walk it

    1. Formally, regress portfolio returns on market returns. The slope is beta, the intercept is alpha.
    2. Beta is commoditised. An index fund delivers it for a few basis points, so a manager charging 1 percent for closet-index beta is destroying value for the client.
    3. Alpha is the residual and it is scarce. The difficulty is that much apparent alpha turns out to be exposure to a factor that was not in the simple model, which is why multi-factor attribution matters.
    4. The industry consequence is the shift to passive and the barbell: cheap beta at one end, genuinely differentiated high-conviction or alternative strategies at the other, with the middle being squeezed out.
    5. For a multi-manager platform the framing goes further: the platform wants pure idiosyncratic alpha and hedges out the factor exposure centrally, which is exactly why analysts there are asked about hedging and factor neutrality.
    6. So the practical answer to 'why does it matter' is that your job is to produce the part that cannot be bought for four basis points.

    Where candidates lose it

    Defining the terms without the commercial implication. The reason this gets asked is the fee model of the entire industry, and connecting it to why active management is under pressure is what makes the answer land.

    Expect next

    • How much apparent alpha is really factor exposure?
    • Why has money moved to passive?
    • How does a multi-manager platform think about this?

    Reported by candidates at Harris Williams (Investment Banking, Los Angeles, 2025); BlackRock (Risk and Quantitative Analysis, New York, 2026). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

  9. 069What is the difference between a mutual fund and an ETF?Industry knowledgeCoretechnicalPIMCOCompliance · Los Angeles · 2024The Vanguard GroupGeneralist · Malvern · 2026

    Say this

    Both are pooled vehicles. A mutual fund transacts once a day at NAV directly with the fund; an ETF trades on an exchange all day at a market price, with authorised participants creating and redeeming units in kind.

    Then walk it

    1. Trading: mutual fund orders all execute at the day's closing NAV. ETFs trade continuously, so you can buy intraday, use limit orders, and in some markets short them or trade options on them.
    2. The creation and redemption mechanism is the structural difference. Authorised participants exchange a basket of securities for ETF units, which keeps the market price close to NAV through arbitrage.
    3. Tax, in the US specifically: in-kind redemption lets an ETF hand out low-basis securities without realising gains, so ETFs generally distribute far fewer capital gains than mutual funds. This is a major driver of their growth.
    4. Costs: ETFs typically have lower expense ratios but you pay a bid-ask spread and possibly a brokerage commission, so for small regular investments a mutual fund can work out cheaper.
    5. Access and minimums: mutual funds often have minimum investments and support automatic contribution plans; ETFs need a brokerage account and trade in whole units unless fractional trading is offered.
    6. In India the same distinction holds, with the added practical point that ETF liquidity varies a lot outside the largest index products, so tracking difference and spreads matter more than the headline expense ratio.

    Where candidates lose it

    Saying only 'ETFs trade on an exchange'. The substantive differences are the creation-redemption mechanism and the tax consequence that follows from it. Both should be in the answer.

    Expect next

    • Why are ETFs more tax efficient?
    • When would you recommend a mutual fund instead?
    • What causes an ETF to trade away from NAV?

    Reported by candidates at PIMCO (Compliance, Los Angeles, 2024); The Vanguard Group (Generalist, Malvern, 2026). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

  10. 070How would you build a portfolio for clients with different needs and requirements?Portfolio and riskIntermediatetechnicalThe Vanguard GroupInvestment Research · Malvern · 2024ScotiabankSales and Trading · Toronto · 2025

    Say this

    Start from the liability, not the assets. What is the money for, when is it needed, and what loss can the client tolerate without abandoning the plan? Then build the allocation to match, and only then pick instruments.

    Then walk it

    1. Establish the objective and the horizon. A retirement pot 30 years out and a house deposit in two years require opposite portfolios regardless of the client's stated risk appetite.
    2. Separate risk capacity from risk tolerance. Capacity is what their circumstances can absorb; tolerance is what they can emotionally sustain. Build to the lower of the two, because a portfolio abandoned in a drawdown fails whatever its expected return.
    3. Set the strategic asset allocation across equities, fixed income, and any alternatives or real assets. This is the decision that matters most.
    4. Then the constraints: tax status and the right account wrappers, liquidity needs, existing concentrated positions, currency exposure, and any ethical restrictions.
    5. Then instrument selection, favouring low-cost broad exposure as the core, with active or satellite positions only where there is a reason to expect an edge.
    6. Then the governance: a rebalancing rule, a review schedule, and a written plan for what happens in a drawdown. Agreeing the behaviour in advance is the single highest-value thing an adviser does.

    Where candidates lose it

    Starting from products and risk questionnaires. The professional sequence is objective, then capacity and tolerance, then allocation, then instruments. Also failing to distinguish capacity from tolerance, which is the distinction that actually protects clients.

    Expect next

    • How would that differ for a 25-year-old and a 65-year-old?
    • How do you handle a client with a concentrated stock position?
    • What do you do when a client wants to sell in a crash?

    Reported by candidates at The Vanguard Group (Investment Research, Malvern, 2024); Scotiabank (Sales and Trading, Toronto, 2025). Source: Wall Street Oasis.

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Firm tags come from public, anonymous candidate reports on Wall Street Oasis: strong signal, not sworn testimony. Firms are named as the places a question was reported, not as partners of Fin Maverick. Answers are written for this page to show how to think out loud; they are not scripts to recite.

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